AICSCC 2017-18 Entrance Exam Question Paper

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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEXT BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
Serial No.00001
Question Booklet Series A
Entrance Examination – 2017
Time allowed: Two Hours (10.30 am. to 12.30 p.m.)
Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATE:

1. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, check the booklet for any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items, etc. If so, get it replaced by a complete another booklet.
2. Encode clearly the booklet series A, B, C or D in the appropriate place in the answer sl with Blue or Black ball point pen only.
3. Shade your Booklet series properly in the space provided in the OMR answer Sheet.
4. The booklet contains hundred questions. Each question comprises four answers (responses). Select the correct answer (response), which you want to mark on the answer sheet. In case, you feel that there is more than one correct answer (response), mark the answer (response), which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE answer (response) for each question.
5. The answer (response) must be shaded ONLY on the OMR answer sheet provided.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. After you have shaded all your answer (response) on the OMR answer sheet submit the same to the invigilator.
8. You are permitted to take only the question booklet.
9. Sheet for rough work is appended in the question booklet at the end.
1. Contribution of agriculture to GVA is only 20% in India; Still it is known as agrarian economy because

a. industrialisation is capital intensive
b. unemployment rate is high
c. service sector is not developed
d. majority of the population are dependent on agriculture

2. “Sustainable development” aims to accomplish
a. management of the economy with more restrained use of resources
b. higher rate of growth of manufacturing sector
c. “exports” as engine of growth
d. balance in balance of payments

3. “Bit Coin” or crypto currency is
I.a digital currency which allows transactions
II.not owned by government or private
III.neither legal or illegal in India
a. I only
b. I, II only
c. I, II and III
d. None of the above

4. The following is an example for the e-commerce firm
I.Snap deal
II.Flip kart
III.Amazon
a. I only
b. II and III only
c. I, II and III
d. None of the above

5. Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana is a
a. pension scheme for senior citizens
b. health scheme for senior citizens
c. subsidised food grains for BPL families
d. health scheme for differently.abled

6. “Global Economic Report” is reported by
a. Asian Development Bank
b. International Monetary Fund
c. Federal Reserve Bank
d. World Bank

7. To promote institutional deliveries and to reduce MMR the following was launched:
a. Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (JSSKJ )
b. Bal Bandhu Scheme
c. Janani Suraksha Yojana
d. Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PIVISSY)

8. The “teaser rate” of a loan is
a. one where EMI at the beginning is low and increase in the long run
b. one where EMI at the beginning is high and decrease in the long run
c. a terraced loan
d. one without any security

9. “Startup” company is
a. also known as a “shell company”
b. a new enterprise by one with entrepreneurial skill
c. a takeover by a multi-national company
d. one whiCh does not exist but on records to evade taxes

10. Sovereign “Gold Bond” of the Government
I. is tradable in stock exchanges
II. is interest payable
III. is tax exempted of capital gains
a. I and III only
b. I and II only
c. I, ll and III
d. None of the above

11. “Global Hunger Index” is given by
a. Human development report of UNDP
b. International Food Policy Research Institute
c. Food and Agricultural Organisation
d. World Bank

12. “World Economic Outlook” is published by
a. IMF
b. UNDP
c. World Economic Forum
d. World Bank

13. “Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana” was launched for the promotion of
a. self-help groups
b. financial inclusion
c. housing facilities
d. pension for senior citizens

14. The following is a good example for an “invisible item” in Balance of Payments accounting:
a. FDI
b. FII
c. grants by foreign countries
d. external commercial borrowing

15. In Balance of Payments, deficit in current account is to be off-set by capital account by
I. borrowing capital from abroad
II. increasing foreign investments
III.reducing foreign exchange assets
a. I only
b. I and II only
c. II and III only
d. I, II and III

16. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II
A. Mercury I. No Atmosphere
B. Mars II. River Channel 
C. Jupiter III. Planet which could have been a Star
D. Saturn IV. Rippling bands
Codes:
A B  C  D
a. I II III IV
b. III IV I II
c. III I II IV
d. I IV III II

17. Doldrums are
a. Trade Wind belts
b. A low-pressure belt around the Equator where the winds are very light and sea very calm
c. Areas where sea is very rough around the equator.
d. Areas of calm seas.

18. Spring tide means,
a. Higher high tide, higher low tide.
b. Higher high tide, lower low tide.
c. Lower high tide, lower low tide.
d. Lower high tide, higher low tide.

19. The shortest route from Los Angeles to Moscow is over the
a. Atlantic Ocean
b. Pacific Ocean.
c. North pole
d. South Pole.

20. Which of the following correctly states the location of ‘Cold desert’ of India?
a. northeast of Karakoram range.
b. west of Pirpunjal range.
c. south of Shiwalik range.
d. west of Aravalli range.

21. Oozes are associated with
a. Volcanic deposit
b. Terrigenous deposits
c. Pelagic deposits
d. Coral reefs

22. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I (Type of vegetation)  List-II (Region)
A. Mangrove                          I. Odisa
B. Tropical Wet Evergreen       II Western Ghats
C. Tropical wet Deciduous       III. West Bengal
D. Dry Savanna and Steppe    IV. Gujarat
Codes:
A B C D
a. III II I IV
b. I IV III II
c. III IV I II
d. I II III IV

23. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I (Types of cloud)   List-II (Mechanisms for formation)
A. Convection Cloud     I. Forced lift of stable air
B. Layered cloud          II. Adiabatic expansion and cooling due to rapid local reduction in Pressure.
C. Orographic cloud     III. Local ascent of warm, buoyant air parcel in a conditionally unstable environment.
D. Funnel cloud           IV. Forced lifting of air as it passes over mountains /hills.
Codes:
A B C D
a. III II IV I
b. IV I III II
c. III I IV II
d. IV II III I

24. Choose the correct ones:
I. July winter rainfall is the highest  — Northern hemisphere
II. January winter rainfall is the highest  — Southern hemisphere
III. January winter rainfall is the highest  — Northern hemisphere
IV. July winter rainfall is the highest  — Southern hemisphere
a. I and II
b. III and III
c. I, III and IV
d. None of them

25. Which of the following conditions are associated with El Nino phenomena?
a. Heavy rains in South America and drought in Australia
b. Droughts in South America and heavy rains in Australia
c. Heavy rains both in South America and Australia
d. Drought in both South America and Australia

26. The sequence of Great lakes of USA from east to west is
a. Huron-Michigan-Ontario-Superior-Erie .
b. Superior- Ontario-Erie- Michigan-Huron
c. Ontario -Erie-Huron-Michigan-Superior
d. Erie- Huron-Michigan-Ontario-Superior

27. Which one of the following true regarding Jhum cultivation in India?
I. It is largely practiced in Assam.
II. It is referred as Slash and Burn Technique.
III. In it, the fertility is exhausted in a few years.
a. I, II and III
b. II and III
c. I and II
d. I and III

28. The Indus and Brahmaputra rivers are examples of
a. Subsequent Drayage
b. Super imposed drainage
c. Consequent drainage
d. Antecedent drainage

29. Find out the correct ones
I. Cirro-stratus clouds can cause halos.
II. Cirro-cumulus clouds are known as Mackerel sky.
III. Alto-stratus clouds make the sun appear dull.
IV. Cumulo-Nimbus clouds are associated with cyclonic rains.
a. I and II
b. III and IV
c. I, II and
d. All of them

30. Choose the correct ones:
I. Solar Eclipse occurs on new moon day
II. Lunar eclipse occurs on full moon day
III. Solar eclipse occurs when the’moon is in between
IV. Lunar eclipse occurs when the earth is in between
a. I and II
b. II and IV
c. I, III and IV
d. All of them

31. Sometime after the death of Dadaji Kondev, Shivaji build a new fort on the crest of a hill and it served as his capital for over a decade. Find out the fort
a. Fort of Torna
b. Fort of_Chakan
c. Fort of Raigad
d. Fort of Purandar

32. The British repaired and extended it and it became the basis of the western jamuna Canal. Who was the pioneer in this regard?
a. Alauddin Khilji
b. Muharnmed Bin Tughluq
c. Firuz Tughluq
d. Balban

33. With reference to the conquest of Deccan by Akbar, Consider the following statements:
I. Akbar was concerned at the activities of the Portuguese
II. Burhan Nizam Shah, the ruler of Ahmad Nagar was rude and brusquely dismissed the Mugal envoy.
Which of the statements given is / are correct?
a. I only
b. II only
c. Both I and II
d. neither I nor II

34. Which are the given statements; indicate the real nature of Mughal military?
I. The Mugal army consisted of cavalry, infantry, artillery, elephants and camels
II. There was a navy
III. There were several types of artillery.
Select the correct answer using the code given below?
a. I only
b. II and III only
c. I and III only
d. All are correct

35. To ensure the regular supply of food grains to the “banjaras”, a number regulations were made by this Sultan?
a. Balban
b. Aluddin Khilji
c. Muhammed Bin Tughluq
d. Sikander Lodi

36. What are the three areas, led to conflict between the Bahmani and Vijayanagar rulers?
a. Tungabhadra Doab, Krishna Godavari Delta and Malwa
b. Raichur Doab, Krishna Godavari Delta and Konkan areas
c. Goa, Nellore and Mudgal
d. Gulbarga, Raichur Doab and Warangal

37.Among the following the Chola rulers, who was having the titles, Madurantaka and Maduraikonda?
a. Aditya I
b. Parantaka I
c. RajaRaja I
d. Rajendra I

38. Consider the following statements with reference to the Sangam Age?
I. The Che‘ra Dynastic history is better documented than the other two
II. The Age of Sangam could be taken to be period of six centuries from the 3rd Century B.C. to the 3rd Century AD.
III. The Tolkappiam which is the earliest extant Tamil work can be dated to the 10th Century B.C.
Which of the above given statements is / are correct?
a. I only
b. I and II
c. II only
d. II and III

39. This Pallava ruler was a great builder of temples, tanks as well as a town. He wrote two plays in Sanskrit. Who was he?
a. Mahendra Varman I
b. Narasimha Varman I
c. Mahendra Varman II
d. Parameswara Varman

40. Which were the four textile export regions in India in the eighteenth century?
a. Punjab, Gujarat, Coromandel and Bengal
b. Gujarat, Konkan, Punjab and South Kanara
c. Rajputana, Bengal, Gwalior and Punjab
d. Coromandel, Broach, Bengal and Rajputana

41. With which movement, a four months long strike at Buckingham and Carnatic mills in Madras was connected?
a. Quit India Movement
b. Civil Disobedience Movement
c. All India Kisan Movement
d. Non – cooperation Movement

42. Who were the main people behind the foundation of the Federation of Indian Chambers of commerce and Industry?
a. Walchand Hirachand and Tatas
b. G.D. Birla and P. Thakurdas
c. Lalji Naroinji and G.D. Birla
d. Homi Wady and Ness Wadia

43. Which were the important cities in the Shunga Kingdom? 
a. Ujjain, Sanchi and Kashi
b. Taxila, Sanchi and Soparall
c. Pataliputra, Ayodhya and Vidisha
d. Pratishthana, Amaravati and Sakala

44.Who was the first important king of Hunas?
a. Toramana
b. Mihirakula
c. Yasodharman
d. Moga

45. On the banks of which river, Siddhartha Gautama made the final discovery?
a. Rijupalika
b. Gomati
c. Niranjana.
d. Sadanira

46. Which is referred to as the “appointed day”?
a. 15.03.1945
b. 15.08.1947
c. 26.11.1949
d. 26.01.19504

47. Who was the chairman for the Union Powers Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
a. Jawaharlal Nehru
b. K.M.Munshi
c. Vallabhbhai Patel
d. B.R.Ambedkar

48. How many types of liberty are included. in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
a. Three
b. Four
c. Five
d. Six

49. In which year was the Judges (Inquiry) Act enacted in India.
a. 1952
b. 1958
c. 1962
d. 1968

50. How many times was the President’s rule imposed in Tamil Nadu? 
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Five

51. Which feature has not been borrowed from Irish constitution?
a. Method of election of President
b. Nomination of members of Rajya Sabha
c. Directive Principles
d. Parliamentary privileges

52. How many categories can be classified in the territory of India according to article-1 of the constitution?
a. Three
b. Four
c. Five
d. Six

53. Which is associated with the 97th Amendment Act, 2011?
a. Agriculture
b. Cooperation
c. Industry
d. Trade and Commerce

54. Which is a”bold experiment” in India?
a. Adult suffrage
b. Parliamentary system
c. Socialism
d. Secularism

55. What does part XIX of the Constitution deal with?
a. Official language
b. Elections
c. Miscellaneous
d. Amendment of the Constitution

56. What are the two subjects included in the “Dyarchy”?
a. Transferred and the special subjects
b. Reserved and the special subjects
c. Non-transferred and the reserved subjects
d. Transferred and the reserved subjects

57. Which was not given immediate effect, i.e., from November 26, 1949?
a. Citizenship
b. Fundamental Rights
c. Elections
d. Provisional Parliaments

58. Which Schedule is related with article 244 of the Constitution?
a. Fourth Schedule
b. Fifth Schedule
c. Sixth Schedule
d. Seventh Schedule

59. What does part-XV of the constitution deals with?
a. The Union Territories
b. Elections
c. Official language
d. Emergency provisions

60. In which year was L.M.Singhvi committee relating to Panchayati Raj appointed by the Union Government?
a. 1982
b. 1984
c. 1986
d.1989

61. ASSERTION (A): When hot water is poured into thin glass tumbler more likely to break tha thick glass tumbler.
REASON (R1): Glass is a good conductor of heat.
REASON (R2): Glass is a bad conductor of heat.
a. Both A and R1 are true and R1 is the reason for A.
b. A is false and R1 is true.
c. Both A and R2 are true and R2 is the reason for A.
d. A is false R2 is true.

62. ASSERTION (A): Humid air is heavier than dry air.
REASON (R) : In a humid atmosphere some dry air has been displaced by water vapour.
a. A is true and R is true explanation for A
b. A is true and R is true not the explanation for A.
c. A is false and R is true.
d. A is false and R is false.

63. KATRIN experiment readies for quest to find
a. Graviton
b. dark matter
c. neutrino mass
d. exoplanet

64. Satellite Micius which can send entangled quantum particles to far-flung locations on Earth launched by
a. NASA
b. ESA
c. ISRO
d. CNSA

65. Large Hadron Collider beauty (LHCb) experiment’s aim is to study
a. Higgs Boson
b. quark
c. doubly charmed Xi baryon
d. baryon

66. The natural saccharide based sweetener used in sugar free gums and candies is
a. Ribitol
b. Xylitol
c. Calciferol
d. Aspartame

67. Seliwanoff s test is used to
a. Test for viral antigens
b. Test for VLDL
c. Test for cholesterol
d. Test for aldose and ketose

68. In Biology, Kary Mullis is associated with
a. Restrictions enzymes
b. DNA finger printing
c. Nanobots
d. PCR

69. The genetically engineered ‘Golden rice’ is known for the enhanced synthesis of
a. Tocopherol
b. Beta Carotene
c. Acetyl Co A
d. Pyridoxine

70. Consider the following statements
I. Sickle cell anaemia is an autosomal dominant disorder
II. The white blood cells become sickle shaped
III. The disease can be demonstrated with the sickle solubility test using a reducing agent
Which of the statement(s) is/are correct?
a. All are correct
b. I and II alone
c. none
d. III alone

71.In which of the following activities are Indian remote sensing (IRS) satellites used
I. Assessment of crop productivity
II. Locating ground water resources
III. Mineral prospecting
IV. Telecommunications
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a. I, II and III
b. III and IV
c. I and II
d. I, II, III and IV

72. In the context of the Indian defense, what is ‘Nirbhay’?
a. Aircraft-carrying warship
b. Missile-carrying submarine
c. Long range subsonic cruise missile
d. Intercontinental ballistic missile

73. Detergents are known to pollute rivers and waterways. However, detergents can be made biodegradable and pollution free by taking
a. Benzenoid hydrocarbon’s
b. hydrocarbon with more branching
c. unbranched hydrocarbon chain
d. shorter hydrocarbon chain

74. Which State in India has the following characteristics?
I. It is located on the latitude 26° – 29° N.
II. It has over 80% of its area under forest cover. 
III. Dehang Dibang biosphere reserve is in this State.
a. Arunachal Pradesh
b. Assam
c. Himachal Pradesh
d. Uttarakhand

75. Consider the following:
I. Photosynthesis 
II. Respiration
III. Decay of organic matter
IV. Volcanic action
Which of the above add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on Earth?
a. I and IV only
b. II and III only
c. II, III and IV only
d. I, II, III and IV

76. Consider the following:
I. Kawal : Maharashtra
II. ‘ NagarjunasagarSrisailam : Telangana
III. Sathyamangalam: Tamil Nadu
IV. Mukandra hills : Uttar Pradesh
Which of the above tiger reserve and the state in which they have been notified are matched
correctly?
a. I and II only
b. II and III only
c. I and IV only
d. I, II, III and IV

77. ‘Living Root Bridges’, which are roots of a living tree (Ficuselastica) turned into robust bridges by the locals to cross streams and which as time passes become stronger. These unique living bridges are found in
a. Meghalaya
b. Himachal Pradesh
c. Jharkhand
d. Tamil Nadu

78. Which one of the following is associated with the issue of control and phasing out of the use Of ozone-depleting substances?
a. Bretton Woods Conference
b. Montreal Protocol
c. Kyoto Protocol
d. Nagoya Protocol

79. With reference to ‘fly ash’ produced by the power plants using the coal as fuel, which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. Fly ash can be used in the production of bricks for building construction
II. Fly ash can be used as a replacement for some of the Portland cement contents of concrete
III. Fly ash has substantial quantities of carbon dioxide and calcium hydroxide.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a, I and II
b. II only
c. I and III
d. III only

80. How does National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) help in protecting the Indian agriculture? I. NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the indigenous and traditional genetic resources.
II NBA directly monitors and supervises the scientific research on genetic modification of crop plants.
III. Application for intellectual Property Rights related to genetic / biological resources cannot made without the approval of NBA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. I only
b. II and III only
c. I and III only
d. I, II and III

81. Consider the following pairs about parks and rivers passing through them:
I. Corbett National Park : Ramganga
II. Kaziranga National Park  : Diphlu 
III. GirNational Park  :  Hiran
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
a. I and II only
b. III only
c. I and III only
d. I, II and III

82. Consider the following pairs:
I. Nokrek Biosphere Reserve : Meghalaya
II. Simlipal Biosphere Reserve : Maharashtra
III. Panna Biosphere Reserve : Gujarat
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
a. I only
b. II and III only
c. I, II and III
d. III only

83. Apart from New Delhi, the National Green Tribunal sits in
a. Kolkata, Jaipur, Chennai and Guwahati
b. Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai
c. Mumbai, Chennai, Hyderabad and Gurgaon
d. Chennai, Mumbai, Kolkata and Guwahati

84. Which tiger reserve has been identified for the tiger augmentation programme by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA)?
a. Kallakadu – Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve
b. Buxa Tiger Reserve
c. Ranthambore Tiger Reserve
d. Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve

85. Which one of the following is associated with the issue of control and phasing out of the use of ozone-depleting substances?
a. Bretton Wood Conference
b. Montreal Protocol
c. Kyoto Protocol
d. Nagoya Protocol

86. ‘Biocarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes’ is managed by the
a. Asian Development Bank
b. International Monetary Fund
c. United Nations Environment Programme
d. World Bank

87. Japan’s men-only island which gets UNESCO heritage tag in the year 2017
a. Ainoshima
b. Naoshima
c. Hashima
d. Okinoshima

88. The three countries yet to sign CTBT 
a. India, Israel, Pakistan
b. India, North Korea, Pakistan
c. Pakistan, North Korea, Israel
d. Iran, North Korea, Pakistan

89. Film maker of the documentary on Amartya Sen “The Argumentative Indian “is
a. Raj Chakroborty
b. Kaushik Ganguly
c. Mainak Bhaumik
d. Suman Ghosh

90. “Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan “scheme
a. to provide funding for secondary educational institutions.
b. to provide funding for educating girl children.
c. to provide funding for higher educational institutions.
d. to provide funding for higher secondary educational institutions.

91. Which gas used in chemical warfare is also used in chemotherapy for cancer patients
a. Hydrogen cyanide.
b. Mustard gas.
c. Sarin
d. Agent 15

92. Which nerve gas is used in Syria?
a. Ricin
b. Mustard gas
c. Agent 15
d. Sarin

93. Sheroes café born out of the Stop Acid Attacks campaign is located at
a. Delhi
b. Mumbai
c. Hyderabad
d. Agra

94. Country which voted opposing the global treaty banning nuclear weapons at the UN Headquaters in New York on July 7th, 2017 is
a. North Korea.
b. USA
c. Netherlands.
d. Russia

95. Tiangong-2 space laboratory was launched by
a. Japan
b. South Korea
c. China
d. ESA

96. Which of the following is not associated with Xiamen Declaration signed in 9th BRICS Summit?
I.Establishment of a BRICS local currency bond fund was discussed.
II. BRICS Agriculture Research Platform is proposed to be established in India.
III.South Africa has been congratulated and praised for the full implementation of the eThekwini Action Plan.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a. I and II
b. II only
c. II and III
d. All of these.

97. Which of the following is correct about Surya Kiran Joint military exercise held in India and Nepal?
I.The Surya Kiran series of Exercises are being conducted annually, alternatively in Nepal and India.
II.12th edition of Nepal-India Surya Kiran exercise held in Nepal.
III.The 11th edition the joint exercise was held in Pithoragarh in Uttarakhand.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a. I and II
b. II only
c. II and III
d. All of these.

98. Which city has been formally accorded the status of India’s first World Heritage City by UNESCO?
a. Kajuraho
b. Mumbai
c. Bengaluru
d. Ahmedabad

99. Which country recently launches its first environmental satellite named ‘Venus’ to the space?
a. Israel
b. China
c. USA
d. Japan

100. Where did the first BIMSTEC Disaster Management Exercise – 2017 held?
a. Kathmandu
b. Dhaka
c. New Delhi
d. Colombo