AICSCC Entrance Exam Answer Key 2019 Batch

AICSCC has released tentative answer key today on Nov 20, 2018. The Entrance exam was conducted on November 18, 2018. AICSCC Entrance Exam Answer Key 2019 Batch is now available for download.

Can Expect Results in December 2018

Check  Previous year cutoff marks for AICSCC Entrance exam

Click here to Download Official Answer key in PDF format

P.S: No negative marks.

Answers for 5 Questions have been revised. Please take a look at revised answer key too.

Question Booklet Series: B

1.  Which one of the following groups of states were not annexed under the policy of Doctrine of Lapse?
a) Satara and Jaipur
b) Nagpur and Udaipur
c) Punjab and Sikkim
d) Jhansi and Sambalpur

2. With reference to the Chamber of Princes, consider the following statements:
     1. As early as 1876, Lord Lytton had suggested the formation of an Indian privy council of Great Indian States
     2. The authors of Montagu  Chelmsford reform favoured the formation of a council of Princes
     3. It was inaugurated in the year 1925
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2                 
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3
d) All of them

3. With reference to the Pre Historic India, consider the following statements:
    1. Athirampakkam, Paiyyampalli, and Gudiyam are important Palaeolithic sites in Tamilnadu.
    2. The middle Palaeolithic phase was first identified by H.D. Sankalia
    3. The tools became small in the middle Palaeolithic period
    4. The upper Palaeolithic period is based on blade and bone tool technologies.
Select the correct answers using the codes given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 3 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

4. Consider the following pairs;
  Culture / Period                                            Pottery
   1. Indus Civilization                                     Black – on – red, Grey and Buffware
   2. Iron age in North India                            Painted Greyware
   3. Mauryan Period                                       Northern Black polished ware
   4. Megalithic culture of  Tamilnadu             Polished Black and Red ware
Which of the pairs given above are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 and 3
c) All of them                             
d) 1 and 4

5. Consider the following statements with reference to King Ashoka of Mauryan dynasty :
    1. At Kanaganahalli, an inscription read “Ranyo Ashoka” refers to Ashoka
    2. During his father’s reign, Ashoka was stationed as Governor at Ujjani, and before that possibly at Taxila
    3. The Second Buddhist council is supposed to have met under Ashoka’s patronage at Pataliputra
    4. Renouncing violence, adjuring war, and advocating the elusive but admirable concept of Dhamma, Ashoka turned statecraft on his head.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 4
d) All of them

6. Consider the following pairs
   Terminology                  Meaning
   1. Zimmis                        Non – Islamic group
   2. Shariah                        Islamic Law
   3. Zakat                           Islamic Income Tax
   4. Waqf                           Endowment
Which of the pairs are correctly matched?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 2 and 3
d) All of them

7. The subsidiary treaty of Lord Wellesley was negotiated on the following terms and conditions:
a) The company was not to interfere in the internal affairs of the state
b) The state need not to accept a British resident in its headquarters
c) The state can employ Europeans in the service
d) A bigger state was to maintain an army within its territories by native officers.

8. Which one of the following statements is not true with thw Theosophical movement?
a) It aims to work for universal brotherhood of humanity without any distinction
b) It believes that a special relationship can be established between a person’s soul and God
c) It was established at Adyar, an outskirt of Madras
d) It came to be allied with Hindu Renaissance.

9. What were the measures not adopted by the Ghadr movement to establish a national republic in India?
a) Procuring arms and Breaking Jails
b) Recruitment of young men and propagation of seditious literature
c) Formation of secret societies and destruction of Railways
d) Non-interference in Indian military and police

10. With reference to Gandhi consider the following statements:
    1. Gandhi came to india on his own accord
    2. The Khilafat movement was perceived by Gandhi as an opportunity to cement the bonds of Hindus and Muslims
    3. Gandhi promised “Swaraj within one year”, when he lanched the Non-cooperation movement
    4. His meteoric rise on the political scene was also facilitated by same accidents of history such as the death of stalwarts, Gokhale, Mehta and Tilak
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 4

11. STATEMENT (A): Sun rotates faster at the equator than at its poles
STATEMENT (B): Sun rotates faster at the poles than at the equator
REASON (R): Sun is a ball of gas/plasma
a) A is true, B is false and R is not the reason
b) A is false, B is true and R is the reason
c) A is true, B is false and R is the reason
d) A is false and B is false

12. Teeth also consist of organic and inorganic materials, but unlike bone, once formed, dental enamel does not remodel. Consequently, in Forensic Science teeth are very useful for determining,
a) How old a person is
b) Whether he had a particular diet
c) Where he lived in the years before his death
d) Where he was born and raised

13. Donna Strickland, the third woman scientist to get Nobel prize in Physics. The two other women scientists who got Nobel Prize in Physics are
a) Marie Curie and Lise Meitner
b) Marie Curie and Maria Goeppert Mayer
c) Marie Curie and Irene Joliot Curie
d) Marie Curie ans Frances H. Arnold

14. STATEMENT (A): Smart textile uses textile keypads based on soft switching
REASON 1 (R1): Soft switching functioning is based on the integrated chip.
REASON 2 (R2): Soft switching functioning is based on quantum tunneling composite
a) A is true R1 is false R2 is false
b) A is true R1 is true R2 is true
c) A is false R1 is false R2 is true
d) A is true R1 is false R2 is true

15. Pet scan images are due to
a) Positron emitted by tumors in the body
b) Positron emitted by the radioactive tracers injected into the body
c) Photons formed due to the annihilation of positron by the electron
d) 3D X-Ray

16. National Institute of Mental Health Rehabilitation is established at
a) Bengaluru
b) Chennai
c) Sehore
d) Hyderabad

17. India and Russia sign deal for
a) Partriot missile
b) Tomahawk missile
c) S-400 missile
d) RS-28 Sarmat missile

18. The country where adultery is not a crime
a) Pakistan
b) Philippines
c) Japan
d) United States of America

19. MD and CEO of INDIAN BANK
a) Shikha Sharma
b) Chanda kochhar
c) Arundhati Bhattacharya
d) Padmaja Chundru

20. Bill & Melinda Gates Campaign award winner
a) Dysmus Kisilu
b) Nadia Murad
c) Amika George
d) Frances Arnold

21. PSLV-C42 Mission of ISRO launched two satellites of
a) Israel
b) Russia
c) UK
d) Bangladesh

22. STATEMENT (A): Air bag in a car will be effective in capturing the driver and cushioning the impact and exerts                                        equal pressure on all parts of the body
STATEMENT (B): Airbag is a substitute for seat belt
STATEMENT (C): Seat belt exerts a larger pressure on smaller area of the body
a) Statement A is true and B is true, C is false
b) Statement A is true and B is true, C is true
c) Statement A is false and B is true, C is true
d) Statement A is true and B is false, C is true

23. What is the full form of CITES?
a) Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species
b) Convention on Indian Trade in Endangered Species
c) Convention on Intermingle Trade in Endangered Species
d) None of the above

24. The ABEL prize is awarded for the outstanding personalities in the area of
a) Physics
b) Chemistry
c) Medicine
d) Mathematics

25. James Webb Space Telescope to be launched by NASA in the year 2021 is
a) X-Ray telescope
b) Microwave telescope
c) Visible range telescope
d) Infrared Telescope

26. MUDRA bank loans are
a) Direct loans
b) Refinance loans
c) corporate loans
d) Agriculture loans

27. Total Fertility Rate (TFR) replacement level has been achieved by
a) Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra
b) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Delhi
c) Kerala, Delhi, Andhra Pradesh
d) Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat

28. The highest ever value India reached in Human development index is
a) 0.596
b) 0.586
c) 0.612
d) 0.602

29. The period of economic consolidation and preparation for change in India occurred in
a) 1950s
b) 1960s
c) 1970s
d) 1980s

30. Poverty gap means the difference between
a) Poverty line and Relative poverty line
b) Relative poverty line and average consumer expenditure of poor
c) Poverty line and average consumer expenditure of poor
d) Poverty line and per capita GDP

31. Which among the following is the World’s largest Wetland System?
a) Camargue (France)
b) Okavango (Botswana)
c) Everglades (USA)
d) Pantanal

32. Which among the following terms of utmost significance in the dynamics of resource management was coined in the Brundtland Commission Report?
a) Polluter-Pays Principle
b) Sustainable development
c) Inclusive Growth
d) Carrying Capacity

33. The Montreaux Record is a register of:
a) Invasive Alien Species and their ecological hazards outside their native environment
b) Wetland sites under the threat of anthropogenic activities
c) Endangered species of tropical and sub-tropical fauna
d) Coastal cities under direct threat of consequences of global warming

34. What award is presented to individuals or communities from rural areas who have shown extraordinary courage and dedication in protecting Wildlife by the GoI?
a) Indira Gandhi Paryavaran Puraskar
b) Medini Puruskar Yojana
c) Amrita Devi Bishnoi Award
d) Pitambar Pant National Award

35. Which one of these Multilateral Environment Agreements (MEAs) is not correctly paired with the issue it deals with?
a) Montreal Protocol of 1987  – Ozone Depleting Substances
b) Bonn Convention of 1979   – The conservation of Migratory Species
c) Basel Convention of 1989   – Regulation of Transboundary movement, Transit, handling and use of GMOs
d) Rotterdam Convention of 1998  – Trade in Hazardous Chemicals and Pesticides

36. Recently scientists from Newcastle University, UK created world’s first 3D printed
a) Human lungs
b) Human Cornea
c) Human skin
d) Human DNA

37. World Liver Day is observed on
a) April 19
b) October 1
c) November 11
d) May 25

38. Which of these is part of the Vitamin B complex?
   1. Tocopherol
   2. Niacin
   3. Folic acid
   4. Ascorbic acid
   5. Pantothenic acid
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2, 3 and 5 only

39. UN’s highest environment award, UN Champions of earth Award for 2018 was awarded to?
a) Bharat Vatwani
b) Nadia Murad and Dennis Mukwege
c) Jack Johnson and Li Bingbing
d) Narendra Modi and Emmanual Macron

40. WAYU ( Wind Augmentation Purifying Unit), an indigenous air pollution control device which was inaugurated in Delhi, was developed by
a) CSIR-NEERI
b) CPCB
c) MoEF and CC
d) Oxymed

41. The Kani tribal settlements are present in the
a) Mudumalai National Park
b) Mundanthurai National Park
c) Guindy National Park
d) Annamalai National Park

42. The MoEF and CC recently released ‘ India Cooling Action Plan’ on the occasion of:
a) World Environment Day
b) World Water Day
c) Earth Day
d) World Ozone Day

43. Which among these is not an artificial nonsugar sweetener?
a) Saccharin
b) Sucralose
c) Sucrose
d) Aspartame

44. World TB day is observed on
a) October 1
b) November 11
c) May 25
d) March 24

45. Streptokinase is a drug given
a) For breaking down blood clots
b) For treating throat infection
c) For controlling fungal infection
d) For depression

46. Choose the correct answer:
I am older than you. ___________?
a) amn’t I?
b) don’t I?
c) didn’t I?
d) aren’t I?

47. Choose the correct answer:
He would not have joined the army if he __________ that they would send him abroad.
a) would know
b) was knowing
c) had known
d) had been knowing

48. Choose the word nearest in meaning to the given word: Immunity
a) exemption
b) tolerance
c) disinclination
d) apathy

49. Choose the word that is most opposite in meaning to the given word: Stringent
a) Lenient
b) General
c) Magnanimous
d) magniloquent

50. Match the following:
A. Democracy     – 1. Government run only by officials
B. Autocracy       – 2. The rule of the people
C. Bureaucracy    – 3. Government by nobility or elite
D. Aristocracy      – 4. The rule by one person with unlimited power
    A    B    C    D
a) 1     2     3    4
b) 2     4    1     3
c) 4     3     2     1
d) 1     2     4     3

51. There are 50 students admitted to a nursery class. Some students can speak only English and some can speak only Hindi. 10 students can speak both English and Hindi. If the number of students who can speak English is 21, then how many students can speak Hindi, how many can speak only Hindi and how many can speak only English?
a) 21, 11 and 29 respectively
b) 28, 18 and 22 respectively
c) 37, 27 and 13 respectively
d) 39, 29 and 11 respectively

52. If the third day of a month is Monday, Which one of the following will be the fifth day from 21st of this month?
a) Monday
b) Tuesday
c) Wednesday
d) Friday

DIRECTIONS FOR THE FOLLOWING THREE QUESTIONS

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

A,B,C,D,E,F are members of a family. They are engineer, stenographer, doctor, draughtsman, lawyer and judge (not in order). A, the engineer is married to the lady stenographer. The judge is married to the lawyer. F the draughtsman is the son of B and brother of E. C the lawyer is the daughter-in-law of D. E is the unmarried doctor. D is the grandmother of F. There are two married couples in the family

53. What is the profession of B?
a) Judge   
b) Lawyer
c) Draughtsman
d) Cannot be determined

54. Which of the following is / are a couple / couples?
a) AD only
b) BC only
c) Both AD and BC   
d) Both AC and BD

55. What is the profession of D?
a) Judge
b) Stenographer
c) Doctor
d) Cannot be determined

56. Landslide in India is due to
   1. Incessant rain
   2. Large scale slope modification for the house construction
   3. High angle slope for road construction
   4. Large scale sloping for coffee plantation.

a) 1 only
b) 3 & 4 only
c) 2 & 3 only
d) All of them

57. Which of these rivers is an antecedent drainage?
a) Ganga
b) Gomti
c) Ghaghara
d) Gandak

58. Match the following.
A. Windgap        1. Glacier
B. Cirque             2. Running water
C. Gour               3. Winds
D. Sinkholes       4. Karst Topography
A   B   C   D
a)  2   1   3   4
b)  1   2   3   4
c)  2   4   1   3
d)  4   3   2   1

59 Ten degree channel separates
a) Andaman and Nicobar       
b) Niccobar and Sumatra
c) Sumatra and Java
d) Maldive and Srilanka

60. Dried grapes are known as
   1. Currants
   2. Raisins
   3. Sultanas
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) All of them

61. Which is not a correct statement?
   1. Tides are caused by the attractive force of the Sun and the Moon
   2. Tides do not occur at the same time every day
   3. Tides are caused by the force of wind
   4. Tides are useful for man along the coast
a) 1
b)2
c) 3   
d) 4

62. Match the following
A. Nalpati sanctuary                1. Tamilnadu
B. Ranganathittu sanctuary     2. Haryana
C. Sultanpur                            3. Karnataka
D. Vedanthangal                    4. Andhra Pradesh
     A   B   C   D
a)  4   3   2   1
b)  1   2   3   4
c)  3   2   1   4
d)  2   1   3   4

63. Importance of port depends on its
1. Prosperity of the hinterland
2. Good Communication system
3. Population
4. Location and modern facilities
a) 1,2 & 4
b) 1 & 2
c) 1,2 & 3
d) 1,2,3 & 4

64. In India, soil erosion is associated with
   1. Terrace cultivation
   2. Deforestation
   3. Tropical climate
a) 1 & 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 & 3
d) 1,2 & 3

65. Which of the rivers is/are antecedent drainage?
   1. Indus
   2. Sutlej
   3. Ghaghara
   4. Brahmaputra
a) 1&2
b) 2 only
c) 3&4
d) All of them

66. Match the following:
A. Grams      1. Karnataka and Tamilnadu
B. Maize       2. Rajasthan and U.P.
C. Barley       3. Karnataka and Telengana
D. Ragi         4. M.P. and Rajasthan
A   B   C   D
a) 4   3   2   1
b) 1   2   3   4
c) 3   1   2   4
d) 2   4   1   3

67. Which of the following pairs are correct?
1. Sherry of Spain
2. Port of Portugal
3. Champaign of France
4. Marsala of Italy
a) 1 & 3
b) 2 & 4
c) 1, 2 & 3
d) 1, 2, 3 & 4

68. Which of the following statements are correct?
   1. NH4, NH5, NH2, NH3 form the Golden Quadrilateral
   2. NH2, NH4, NH5, NH8 form the Golden Quadrilateral
   3. Golden Quadrilateral covers a distance of 14, 846 kms
   4. NH7 cuts across NH4, NH9, NH6, NH2
a) 1, 3 & 4
b) 2, 3 & 4
c) 1, 2, 3 & 4
d) 2 & 4

69. Which are all correct statements?
   1. Corals are found all over the continental shelf of the Tropical waters
   2. Colouring of corals are due to the presence of Algae
   3. Corals grow only facing the seaward side, landward facing corals will die
   4. Corals are found beyond 30 degree north latitudes
a) 1 & 4
b) 2 & 3
c) 2, 3 & 4     
d) All of them

70. One and Half degree channel is found near
a) Myanmar
b) Maldives
c) Indira point
d) Sri Lanka

71. On which one of the temple walls, famous Sanskrit inscription of Pulikesi-II is found?
a) Virupakshal Temple at Pattadakal
b) Ladkhan Temple at Aihole
c) Megudi Temple at Aihole
d) The shore Temple at Mahabalipuram

72. With reference to India’s age of Feudalism, consider the following statements:
1. The period between 648 AD to 1206 AD is often designated as ancient
2. D.D. Kosambi and R.S. Sharma demarcated these six centuries as the period of Indian Feudalism
3. The Theory of Feudalism has not wide acceptance especially when it is applied to the Chola empire of the tenth and eleventh centuries
Which of the statement(s) given above is / are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 2
d) 3 only

73. Consider the following pairs:
Office under the Sultanate          Nature of work
1. Wazir                                          In charge of income and expenditure
2. Sadr-us-Sadar                            Religious affairs
3. Mumshi-i-mumalik                    State’s postal correspondence
4. Wakil-i-dar                                Incharge of royal armory
Which are the pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1 and 2
d) 3 and 4

74. With reference to the Mughal empire, consider the following statements:
1. From 1556-1719, the Mughal empire remained a dynamic, centralized, complex organization
2. The Mughal dynasty and the empire itself became indisputably Indian
3. The Mughal rulers relied heavily upon the support of the Islamic religious establishment for legitimacy and political backing
Select the correct answer(s), using the code given below:
a) 1 and 3
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3

75. Regarding Shivaji’s army, which one of the following statements is not correct?
a) Shivaji army consisted of light cavalry
b) It was most effective precisely at raids
c) It had ability to take forts by storm, sapping, or mining
d) The Maratha army was backed up by forts as places of refuge

76. Nominated members for the constitutional assembly are nominated by
a) Rulers of the Indian princely states
b) Congress Party
c) Muslim League
d) Communist Party

77. What is the procedure required to be followed for the abolition existing legislative council in a state?
a) The Rajya Sabha must pass a resolution to that effect
b) The state legislative assembly must pass a resolution to that effect by a special majority as prescribed in the constitution
c) Parliament must enact a law abolishing the legislative council
d) The state legislative assembly must pass a resolution ordinary majority as in the case of a bill

78. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the parliament to legislate on any matter of the state list?
a) Art 115
b) Art 183
c) Art 221
d) Art 226

79. In India, if a religious sect/community is given “the status of a national minority”, what special advantages it is entitled to?
1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions
2. The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to Lok Sabha
3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of them

80. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the-Consolidated Fund of India must come from:
a) The President of India
b) The Parliament of India
c) The Prime Minister of India
d) The Union Finance Minister

81. Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
   1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
   2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State
   3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory
   4. A dispute between two or more States
Select the correct answers using the codes given below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 4
d) 3 and 4

82. What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?
a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha
b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further
c) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
d) The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill

83. The abolition of the IAS and IPS has been recommended by the
a) Dhebar Commission
b) Kelkar Commission
c) Kher Commission
d) Rajamannar Commission

84. When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha
a) the Budget is modified and presented again
b) the Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions
c) the Union Finance Minister is asked to resign
d) the Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers

85. Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?
a) To vote in public elections
b) To develop the scientific temper
c) To safeguard public property
d) To abide by me Constitution and respect its ideals

86. According to the Constitution of India, It is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?
1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) All of them

87. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of
   1. Ordinary Legislation
   2. Money Bill
   3. Constitution Amendment Bill
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of them

88. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?
a) Fundamental Rights
b) Fundamental Duties
c) Directive Principles of State Policy
d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties

89. Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?
a) The Committee on Public Accounts
b) The Committee on Estimates
c) The Committee on Public Undertakings
d) The Committee on Petitions

90. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the centre and the States falls under its
a) advisory jurisdiction
b) appellate jurisdiction
c) original jurisdiction
d) writ jurisdiction

91. Twin balance sheet refers to
a) Balance sheets of corporate and banks
b) Balance sheets of RBI and corporate
c) Budget and balance sheet of corporate
d) Budget and balance sheet of RBI

92. The distinct feature of India’s demographic dividend, working age/non working age population ratio
a) Peaks at low and sustains for longer period
b) peaks at high and sustains for longer period
c) Peaks at high and sustains for short period
d) Peaks at low and continues forever

93. The first company whose management was taken over by government to maintain investors confidence is
a) Mayhtas
b) Sathyam
c) IL & FS
d) MCX

94. Deficit financing refers to
a) Excess expenditure over receipt
b) Financing deficit
c) Deficit in captital account
d) Supply of money

95. Between 1961-2011 per capital cereals and pulses have increased but per capital cereals and pulses availability have decreased due to which of the following:
1. Net import of commodities
2. Seed requirements
3. Wastages
4. Farmers consumptions
a) 1, 2 & 3
b) 2, 3 & 4
c) 1, 2 & 4
d) 1, 3 & 4

96. The highest ever value in HDI attained by any country is
a) 0.971
b) 0.981
c) 0.955
d) 0.965

97. The capitalism giving emphasis to community is
a) Gucci capitalism
b) Co-opt Capitalism
c) Hybrid capitalism
d) Equi capitalism

98. Various poverty ratios and indices developed by Sen are based on
a) Absolute poverty line
b) Relative poverty line
c) OECD poverty line
d) USA poverty line

99. As per IMF study finds that for emerging economics 1°C increase in temperature, the agriculture growth will fall by
a) 1.7%
b) 1.2%
c) 2.3%
d) 2.0%

100. SIP refers to investment in
a) Shares directly
b) Shares indirectly
c) Commodities
d) Forex market