AICSCC Entrance Exam Question Paper 2021 Batch

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Entrance Examination – 2020-21
Serial No. : 00001             
Question Booklet Series : C
Time allowed: Two Hours (10:30 a.m. to 12:30 p.m.)
Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATE

1. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, check this booklet for any unprinted or torn or missing pages or questions. If so, get it replaced with another booklet.
2. Encode clearly the Question booklet series A,B,C or D in the appropriate place in the OMR answer sheet with Blue or Black ball point pen only. 1, (No gel pen should be used)
3. The Question booklet contains hundred questions. Each question comprises four answers (responses). Select the correct answer (response), and shade on the OMR answer sheet in the appropriate place.
4. The answer (response) must be shaded ONLY on the OMR answer sheet provided.
5. All questions carry equal marks.
6. After you have shaded all your answers (responses) on the OMR answer sheet submit the same to the Invigilator.
7. You are permitted to take only the question booklet with you.
8. Sheet for rough work is appended in the question booklet at the end.

1. Consider the following statements:
Statement I- Constitution provides highest executive powers to cabinet.
Statement II- Constitution does not provide power difference between cabinet and other ministers
a. Statement I is true, Statement II is false
b. Statement I is false, statement II is true
c. Both statement I and statement II are true
d. Neither statement I nor statement II are true

2. Consider the following statements:
Assertion- Constitution made Cabinet secretary as highest powerful authority of bureaucrats in India.
Reasoning- Cabinet secretary should not bound with UPSC recommendation for appointment of secretary.
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is true but (R) is false
d. (A) is false, but (R) is true

3. Consider the following with regard to Electoral College for President election?
Assertion- All members of the electoral college are not of uniform value
Reasoning- The System of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote distributes the value to vote.
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is true but (R) is false
d. (A) is false, but (R) is true

4. The correct statements with regard to Ordinance making power of President is/are —
Statement I- The President cannot promulgate an ordinance to amend tax laws.
Statement II- The President can promulgate an ordinance to remove Prime Minister.
a. Statement I is true, statement II is false
b. Statement I is false, statement II is true
c. Both statement I and statement II are true
d. Neither statement I nor statement II are true

5. Statement I -The constitution debars the retired election commissioners from any further appointment by the government.
Statement II- The constitution debars the Comptroller and auditor general of India from any further appointment by the government.
a. Statement I is true, statement II is false
b. Statement I is false, statement II is true
c. Both statement I and statement II are true
d. Neither statement I nor statement II are true

6. The Sixth Schedule of Indian constitution deals with
a. Panchayat raj
b. Administration of Scheduled Areas as well as of Scheduled Tribes
c. Administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
d. Forms of Oaths or Affirmations

7. Consider the following statements with reference to Inter-State Council (ISC) 1. Article 263 of the constitution provides for the establishment of an Inter-State Council (ISC)
2. It was set up on the recommendation of Sarkaria Commission by a Presidential Order in 1990.
3. It is not a permanent constitutional body
4. Home minister is a chair person
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 1,2 and 4

8. How many parties in India having NATIONAL PARTY STATUS?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 7
d. 8

9. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Niti Aayog?
(1) It is a constitutional body.
(2) It is a statutory body.
(3) Home Minister is an ex-officio member.
(4) Advisory body of the government
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
a. (1) and (4)
b. (2) and (4)
c. (3) and (4)
d. (2),(3) and (4)

10. Which of the following statements are correct about Lok Sabha?
(1) The Constitution puts a limit on the size of the Lok Sabha.
(2) The size and shape of the Parliamentary Constituencies are determined by the Election Commission.
(3) First — past — the post electoral system is followed.
(4) The Speaker of Lok Sabha does not have a casting vote in case of an equality of votes.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
a. (1) and (3)
b. (1), (2) and (3)
c. (1), (3) and (4)
d. (1), (2), (3) and (4)

11. Which of the following bodies are headed by the Prime Minister?
1. National Integration Council
2. National Water Resources Council
3. National Development Council
4. Inter-State Council
5. Zonal Councils
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
a. 1, 3, 4 and 5
b. 3, 4 and 5
c. 1, 2, 3 and 4
d. 2, 3 and 4

12. The anti-defection law enshrined through the introduction of the Tenth Schedule in the Constitution of India. Its primary purpose was
a. To stop legislature from disobeying their parties
b. To protect legislature from judicial action
c. To make the existing law more effective in dealing with the frequent defections d. To disqualify the defectors and barring them from being appointed as ministers for a period of time.

13. Who was the first Indian elected for the British Parliament?
a. Dadhabai Naoroji
b. C.R. Das
c. Motilal Nehru
d. W.C. Banerjee

14. Which Chola King engraved the Uthiramerur inscription?
a. Kulothunga-I
b. Paranthaka
c. Kulothunga-III
d. Rajaran II

15. Who announced the communal award in the year 1932
a. Clement Atlee
b. Lord Linglitho
c. Churchill
d. Ramsey McDonald

16. With reference to the “Lucknow session of Indian National Congress 1916” which of the statements given below are correct
(1) Re-admission of Extremists
(2) Alliance between congress and Muslim league was made
(3) It was decided to hold the annual session of the league and congress at the same place
(4) Congress rejected the separate electorate proposal of Muslim league.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a. 2, 3 and 4 only
b. 1, 3 and 4 only
c. 1, 2 and 3 only
d. 2 and 3

17. Which of the following event is incorrect
a. Simon Commission 1927
b. Civil disobedience Movement 1930
c. Gandhi-Irwin pact 1933
d. Quit India Movement 1942

18. The Inquilab Zindabad slogan was given by
a. Bagat singh 
b. Chandrasekara Azad
c. S.C. Bose
d. Maulana hasrat mohani

19. The permanent settlement in Bengal was introduced by
a. Corn wallis
b. Wellesley
c. Robert Clive
d. Hastings

20. Lord McCauley was associated with
a. Army Reforms
b. Abolition of sati
c. Code of laws
d. Permanent settlement

21. He also made an effort to build a modern navy after 1796. For this purpose, he established two dockyards. who was he?
a. Shivaji 
b. Hyder ali
c. Tipu sultan
d. Baji rao -I 

22. On which one of the temple walls, famous Sanskrit inscription of Pulikesian-II is found at
a. Virupakshi Temple at Pattakadal
b. Ladkhan Temple at Aihole
c. Megudi Temple at Aihole
d. The shore Temple at Mahabalipuram

23. “Sushrutha Samhita” is an ancient Sanskrit text on
a. Astronomy
b. Mathematics
c. Medicine and surgery
d. Philosophy

24. During the Colonial period of India Asiatic society of Bengal was founded
a. For developing English education in India
b. for carrying out social reforms
c. to examine the policy of colonial discrimination
d. for carrying researches on past history and antiquation of India

25. Which is true relating to Dyarchy?
(1) It had the ‘transferred’ and ‘reserved’ subjects
(2) It was introduced in the provinces by the Government of India Act, 1919
(3) The Government of India Act 1935 abolished the Dyarchy in the provinces and introduced it at the centre
a. 1 and 2 only 
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. All of the above

26. With reference to the Arthasastra, consider the following statements
(1) It is a treatise on mauryan political economic and administration
(2) It is divided into 15 adhikarnas or books
(3) It’s date and authorship is an established fact beyond any controversy
(4) It gives a detailed description about pataliputra
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
a. All of them
b. 1,2 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 2

27. Which of the following mountains experiencing annual rainfall over 100cm?
1. Pirpanjal 2. Zaskar 3. Mikir hills 4. Jammu hills
a. 1,2 and 3 
b. 2,3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. All the above

28. Which of the following water bodies are acting as Centripetal drainage pattern?
1. Aral sea 2. Caspian Sea 3. Sea of Azov 4. Dead Sea
a. 1,2 and 3
b. 2,3 and 4
c. 1,2 and 4
d. All the above

29. Consider the following statements:
(1) The most of the lakes formed in the middle of Africa are results of subsidence of land along the rift valley.
(2) Lake Victoria, Largest lake of Africa is part of Rift valley
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. both
d. None

30. Which of the following region/s primitive agriculture shifting cultivation is being followed by the native tribes?
1. Amazon basin 2. Congo 3. Papua new Guinea
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. all the above

31. Match the following local winds with the region associated with it.
Local              Wind Region
A. Fohn          1) Argentina
B. Samun       2) Kudistan
C. Santa Ana  3) California
D. Zonda        4) Alps

The correct answer is

A B C D
a) 2 4 1 3
b) 4 2 3 1
c) 2 4 3 1
d) 4 2 1 3

32. Consider the following Natural regions:
1. Taiga
2. Tropical evergreen
3. Tropical deciduous
4. Tundra
The correct sequence in decreasing order of the Albedo values of these regions is
a. 1 — 4 — 3 — 2
b. 4 — 1 — 3 — 2
c. 4 — 1 — 2 — 3
d. 1 — 4 — 2 — 3

33. If there were no Himalayan Ranges, what would have been the most likely geographical impact on India?
(1) Much of the country world experience the cold waves from Siberia.
(2) Indo-gangetic plain would be devoid of such extensive alluvial soils.
(3) The pattern of monsoon would be different from what it is at present.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only 
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

34. Under normal conditions which of the following is the correct sequential landform development by running water?
1. Water fall 2. Structural benches 3. Meanders 4. Oxbow lakes
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 1 2 4 3
c. 2 1 3 4
d. 2 1 4 3

35. Consider the following statements.
1. Boundary between North American plate and Eurasian plate experiences divergences.
2. Boundary between South American plate and Nazca plate experiences Convergence.
3. Boundary between Pacific plate and Eurasian plate experiences divergences. The correct statements are
a. 1 and 2 
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. All the above

36. Which of the following condition the salinity of ocean water decreases?
1. River mouth of R. Amazon and R. Congo.
2. Along the Oyashio current and Okhatsk current.
3. Along sub tropical high pressure belt
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. All the above

37. Which of the following is/are the modification/s of leaf in desert regions to avoid water evaporation?
1. Hard and waxy leaves
2. Thorn instead of leaves
3. Tiny leaves or no leaves
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. All the above

38. Consider following statements regarding jet streams.
1. Jet streams are a current of fast moving air found in the upper troposphere which blows from west to east in northern hemisphere and east to west in southern hemisphere.
2. Their circulation path is wavy and meandering which is called as Rossby waves. Speed in the jet streams decreases radially outwards.
Choose the correct answer.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

39. Which of the following is not true regarding the seismic waves?
a. Primary waves move faster than secondary waves
b. P-waves travel through gaseous, liquid and solid state of materials.
c. The direction of vibration of S-Waves is perpendicular to the wave direction in yertical plane.
d.Speed of propagation of surface waves is faster than S-Waves but slower than P-Waves.

40. Which of the following ocean current is not a part of North Atlantic Gyre?
a. Canary current
b. Greenland current
c. Gulf stream
d. Caribbean current

41. Which one of the following is the top ranking country in the world economic Forum’s 74th Global Energy transition Index?
a. China
b. Switzerland
c. Sweden
d. India

42. Yarkovsky effect’ was in the news recent time, consider the following statements in this regards:
1. It is a force acting on a rotating body in the space.
2. It is mostly seen in the Terrestrial planets.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

43. Shadow zone of an earthquake refers to the zone where-
a. Tendency of experiencing an earthquake is the maximum
b. The destruction is highest due to the hypocentre being below the zone
c. Earthquake waves reflect back due to the presence of large ocean beds
d. None of the above

44. Kihoto Hollohan Judgement of the Supreme Court is related to which of the following subjects?
a. Protecting minorities rights
b. Disqualification of legislators under Tenth Schedule
c. Criminalisation of Politics
d. Code of Conducts of Civil Servants

45. Bastar and Koraput Hills identified as ‘Hot spot’ of endemic and genetic plant diversity in India lies in the following Biogeographic region 
a. Deccan
b. Western Himalayas
c. Eastern Himalayas
d. Western Ghats

46. ‘Green-Blue’ Infrastructure Policy in its Master Plan 2041 is proposed by which of the following state/UT?
a. Gujarat
b. Andhra Pradesh
c. Delhi
d. Uttar Pradesh

47. The diversity existing between the communities of an ecosystem is called
a. Gamma diversity
b. Alpha diversity
c. Mega diversity 
d. Beta diversity

48. Which of the following statement(s) is are correct with respect to the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana?
1. It is a flagship scheme for focused and sustainable development of husbandry sector in the country.
2. The scheme has an estimated investment of Rs. 200 crores for its implementation during a period of 10 years.
3. It focuses on adopting Area-based approach.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 2 and 3 only

49. With reference to the PM CARES Fund, consider the following statements:
1. The PM CARES Fund is a public charitable trust registered under the Registration Act, 1908.
2. It is a public authority under the RTI Act.
3. The CAG is responsible for the auditing of the fund.
4. The fund is exempted from all provisions of the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3 only
b. 1 and 4 only
c. 1, 3 and 4 only
d. 2 and 3 only

50. The Theme for world Ozone Day for the year 2020 is
a. “ozone for Life”:35 years of ozone layer protection
b. “32 years and Healing”
c. “Keep Cool and Carry on”
d. “Caring for all life under the Sun”.

51. With respect to the El Nino Southern Oscillation (ENSO), consider the following statements:
1. El Nino events are sometimes referred to as the warm and wet half phase of ENSO and La Nina as the cold phase of the ENSO
2. Under the El Nino event, the surface temperature of the Pacific Ocean increases more than usual causing heavy rainfalls in Australia.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 only 
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

52. “The Bonn Challenge” is a global effort aimed to
a. To clean the sea shores
b. Restore degraded and deforested landscapes
c. To recycle the non degradable pollutants
d. To conserve Migratory species of wild animals

53. Consider the following statements:
1. Ramsar Convention is an intergovernmental treaty related to wetland protection.
2. India has the highest Ramsar sites in the South Asia region.
3. Mansar Lake and Asan Conservation Reserve are the Ramsar sites.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

54. Consider the following statements:
1. Syngas is a mixture of carbon monoxide and nitrogen gas.
2. It is produced when biomass is heated at low temperature and absence of oxygen.
Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only 
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

55. “16 Psyche” was in the news recently, it is a
a. Software used in Dark Web
b. Newly discovered Exoplanet
c. Rare metallic asteroid
d. Mission to study Venus planet

56. Which of the following is not responsible for Biodiversity loss
a. Alien species invasion 
b. Co-extinction
c. Ex situ conservation
d. Deforestation

57. Which of the following is/are the favourable conditions for the formation of cyclones?
1. Presence of the Coriolis force
2. Calm sea surface
3. High Temperature
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

58. `D614G mutation’ was mentioned in the news, it is seen in which of the following?
a. Microbes like bacteri
b. Novel Coronavirus
c. Cancerous cells in Human being
d. None of the above

59. Match the following
A) Environmental (protection) act i) 1972
B) Water(Prevention & Control of Pollution) act – ii) 1978
C) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) act – iii)1986
D)Wild life (Protection) Act – iv)1981
a. A — iii , B — i, C — iii, D — ii
b. A — iii , B — ii, C — iv , D — i
c. A — iv , B — iii, C — ii, D — i
d. A — iv , B — ii, C — i , D — iii

60. The correct sequence of events that take place in Eutrophication in a lake are
i)Depletion of dissolved oxygen
ii) Rich phosphate accumulation occurs
iii)Excessive growth of algae
iv)Decomposition of the algae
a. ii, iv, i, iii
b. iii, iv, ii, i 
c. ii, iii, iv, i
d. iii, ii, i, iv

61. Which of the following countries borders Syria?
1. Turkey 2. Iran 3. Jordan 4. Saudi Arabia 5. Lebanon
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 3 and 5
b. 1, 3, 4 and 5 d. 3, 4 and 5

62. Assertion (A) Plants growing in Mangroves experience high osmotic pressure.
Reason (R) They accumulate electrolytes in the vacuoles to absorb water
a. (A) is correct and (R) is correct reason 
b. (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect
c. (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
d. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect

63. Thickness of ozone in column of air from ground to top of atmosphere is measured in
a. Decibel 
b. Pascal
c. Kilocalorie
d. Dobson

64. ‘Char-Chaporis culture’ was in the news recently, it is related to which of the following states?
a. Orissa
b. Nagaland 
c. Assam
d. West Bengal

65. With reference to the Aditya- Ll mission, consider the following statements:
1. It is India’s first solar mission.
2. Under the mission, the study the Sun’s corona, solar emissions, solar winds and flares, and Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs) are to be conducted.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only 
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

66. Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to the Brown Carbon ‘Tarballs’?
1. They are small carbonaceous particles formed due to burning of fossil fuel.
2. The brown carbon has strong light-absorbing capacity throughout the spectra.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

67. Which of the following countries are the part of the ‘Five Eyes Alliance’, often seen in the news?
1. Australia
2. United States
3. Japan
4. Canada
5. India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
b. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
c. 2, 4 and 5 only
d. 1, 2 and 4 only

68. ‘Farzad-B Gas Field’ was often mentioned in the news, it is located in which of the following countries?
a. Russia
b. Kuwait
c. Iran
d. UAE

69. Exploring molecular, genetic and species level diversity for products of economic importance is called
a. Biofortification
b. Biomagnifications
c. Bioinformatics
d. Bioprospecting

70. Match List —I (Naturally occurring substances ) with List-II (Elements) and select the correct answer using the codes given the lists
List-I List-II
A. Diamond 1. Calcium
B. Marble 2. Silicon
C. Sand 3. Aluminium
D. Ruby 4. Carbon
Codes:
a. A-3; B-1; C-2 ; D-4
b. A-4 ; B-2 ; C-1; D-3
c. A-2; B-1 ; C-3; D-4 
d. A-4; B-1; C-2; D-3

71. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below
List-I     List-II
A. Vitamin   1. Pepsin
B. Enzyme   2. Carotene
C. Hormone 3. Keratin
D. Protei      4. Progesterone
Codes
a. A-1, B-2; C-3 ; D-4
b. A-2 ;B-1; C-4; D-3
c. A-2; B-1; C-3; D-4
d. A-1; B-2; C-4;D-3

72. The anti-defection law enshrined through the introduction of the Tenth Schedule in the Constitution of India. Its primary purpose was
a. To stop legislature from disobeying their parties
b. To protect legislature from judicial action
c. To make the existing law more effective in dealing with the frequent defections d. To disqualify the defectors and barring them from being appointed as ministers for a period of time.

73. The different isotopes of an element have the same
1) atomic mass
2) atomic number
3) arrangement of orbital electrons
a. 2 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1,2 and 3 only

74. A girl is swinging on a swing in sitting position. When the girl stands up, the period of swing will:
a. be shorter 
b. be longer
c. depends on the height of the girl
d. no change

75. Assertion (A): an iron ball floats on mercury but gets immersed in water
Reason (R): The specific gravity of iron is more than that of mercury.
a. Both_A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true

76. Mahogany, Rosewood and Ebony are important species of which of the following natural vegetation?
a. Tropical rain forest
b. Dry deciduous forest
c. Moist deciduous forest
d. Taiga forest

77. Consider the following statements in respect of a jet engine and a rocket:
1. A jet engine uses the surrounding air for its oxygen supply so is unsuitable for motion in space.
2. A rocket carries its own supply of oxygen in the gas form and fuel. Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
a. 1-only
b. 2 only
c. both 1 and 2
d. neither 1 nor 2

78. A phosphor (photo sensitive material) used in TV picture tubes is
a. Silicon
b. Germanium
c. Copper sulphide
d. Zinc Cadmium sulphide

79. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) makes use of
a. High frequency sound waves
b. X-Ray photons
c. Radio-frequency photons
d. Beta particles

80. The first organic compound synthesized in laboratory is
a. phenol
b. ethanol
c. urea
d. methane

81. Which one of the following is paramagnetic in nature?
a. iron
b. hydrogen
c. oxygen
d. nitrogen

82. Which one of the following numbers is completely divisible by 99?
a. 115919
b. 115909
c. 115939
d. 115929

83. Consider the following statement(s) if large amount of sewage is drained into a nearby Pond.
i) BOD of Pond increase 
ii) Dissolved oxygen of pond decreases
iii) Mortality of fishes does not occur
iv) Increase in Nutrient content of the Pond
a. All the statements are correct
b. Statements i) iii) and iv are correct
c. Statements i and iv are correct
d. Statements i) ii) and iv) are correct

84. A, B and C started a partnership business by investing Rs.27000, Rs.72000, Rs.81000 respectively. At the end of the year , the profit were distributed among them. If C’s share of profit is 36000, What is the total profit?
a. 90000
b. 80000
c. 70000
d. 120000

85. If in a certain number of years Rs. 10000 amount to Rs. 160000 at compound interest, in half that time Rs. 10000 will amount to:
a. Rs. 40000
b. Rs. 50000
c. Rs. 60000
d. Rs.80000

86. Running at the same constant rate, 6 identical machines can produce a total of 270 bottles per minute. At this rate, how many bottles could 10 such machines produce in 4 minutes?
a. 2700
b. 1800
c. 2600
d. 1700

87. Find the missing number. 220, 218, 214, 208, 200,190, 220, 218, 214, 208,200,190,?
a. 166
b. 178
c. 182 
d. 190

88. A company has 10 software engineers and 6 civil engineers. In how many ways can a committee of 4 engineers be formed from them such that the committee must contain exactly 1 civil engineer?
a. 780
b. 720
c. 500
d. 600

89. How many 3 digit numbers can be formed from the digits 2, 3, 5, 6, 7 and 9 which are divisible by 5 and none of the digits is repeated?
a. 24
b. 16
c. 8
d. 20

90. What is a fiscal deficit?
a. Gap between the values of the exports and imports
b. Gap between exports and imports minus external borrowings
c. Gap between total expenditure and total receipts of the Govt.
d. Gap between total receipts minus External Borrowing

91. The three groups of decision makers in the economy are
a. Households, business firms, and banks
b. Households, business firms, and governments
c. Business firms, governments, and banks
d. Business firms, banks, and foreign traders

92. What is the main objective of Jan Dhan Yojana?
a. Housing for all in urban areas
b. To provide LPG connections to women of BPL families
c. Financial Inclusion
d. Clean India

93. Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) was launched in
a. 2001
b. 2008
c. 2013
d. 2020

94. What possesses general acceptability?
a. Bill of exchange 
b. Bond
c. Money
d. Bank draft

95. A period of expansion and contraction measured by real GDP is called
a. Business cycle 
b. Expansion
c. Recession
d. Contraction

96. In India agricultural income is calculated by
a. Income method
b. Output method
c. Expenditure method 
d. None of them

97. The best indicator of economic development of any country is
a. Its agriculture
b. Its transport
c. Its gross production
d. Its per capital income

98. Which of the following is/are immediate objective of the population policy of 2020?
a. Meet the needs of contraception
b. Meet the needs of health infrastructure
c. Meet the needs of health personal 
d. All of the above

99. Consider the following statements:
Statement I – Pardoning powers of president can be challenged in supreme court
Statement II – Pardoning power are exclusive
a. Statement I is true, statement II is false
b. Statement I is false, statement II is true
c. Both statement I and statement II are true
d. Neither statement I nor statement II are true

100. The place which is Well drained land with 200cm of rainfall and 20°C of Temperature is suitable for cultivation of which of the following crops?
a. Tea
b. Coffee
c. Rice
d. Rubber

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AICSCC Previous Year Question Papers