This Bharathiyar University IAS Coaching Entrance Exam Question Paper 2018 was shared for next batch aspirants by Inbarasan K G.
This Entrance Exam is conducted in 2018 for 2019 batch.
BHARATHIAR UNIVERSITY, COIMBATORE – 46
ANNA CENTENARY CIVIL SERVICES COACHING ACADEMY
SCREENING TEST BOOKLET
General Studies
PAPER-I & II
2019
Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200 Date: 14.11.2018
INSTRUCTIONS
Paper I (50 Questions x 2 Marks = 100 Marks)
Paper II (40 Questions x 2.5 Marks = 100 Marks)
1. Consider the following statements in respect of Trade-Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in commerce (TRAFFIC)
1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United National Environment Programme (UNEP)
2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Consider the following statements:
With reference to the constitution of India, the Directive Principles of state policy constitute a limitation upon
1. Legislative function
2. Executive function
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements:
1. It is a song and dance performance
2. Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance
3. It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
4. Local Self-government can be explained as an exercise in
(a) Federalism
(b) Democratic decentralization
(c) Administrative delegation
(d) Direct democracy
5. Consider the following statements:
1. In tropical regions, Zika Virus disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmits dengue
2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
6. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for
(a) Measuring oxygen levels in blood
(b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
(c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
(d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions
7. With reference to the Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events:
1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy
2. Quit India Movement Launched
3. Second Round Table Conference
Which is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
(a) 1-2-3
(b) 2-1-3
(c) 3-2-1
(d) 3-1-2
8. With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements:
1. IRNSS has three Satellites in geostationary and four satellites the geosynchronous orbits
2. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq.km beyond its borders
3. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019
Which of the statements(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None
9. With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard) developed in India, consider the following statements:
1. GM mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium that gives the plant the property of pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests
2. GM mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization
3. GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
10. Why is a plant called Prosopis Juliflora often mentioned in news?
(a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics
(b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows
(c) Its extract is used in the pesticides
(d) None of the above
11. With reference to the religious practices in India, the “Sthanakvasi” sect belongs to
(a) Buddhism
(b) Jainism
(c) Vaishnavism
(d) Shaivism
12. Consider the following statements:
1. In the first Lok Sabha, the largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party
2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognized for the first time in 1969
3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader of the Opposition
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
13. Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss?
1. Hard and waxy leaves
2. Tiny Leaves
3. Thorns instead of leaves
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
14. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?
1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
15. Which one of the following is an artificial lake?
(a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
(b) Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)
(c) Nainital (Uttarakhand)
(d) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)
16. The fundamental object of the Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following?
1. People’s participation in development
2. Political accountability
3. Democratic decentralization
4. Financial mobilization
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2,3 and 4
17. Consider the following pairs:
Place of pilgrimage Location
1. Srisailam : Nallamala Hills
2. Omkareshwar : Satmala Hills
3. Pushkar : Mahadeo Hills
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
18. In India, markets in agricultural products are regulated under the
(a) Essential Commodities Act, 1955
(b) Agricultural Produce Market Committee Act enacted by States
(c) Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act, 1937
(d) Food Products Order, 1956 and Meat and Food Products Order, 1973
19. The Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the
(a) Human Rights Commission
(b) Finance Commission
(c) Law Commission
(d) Planning Commission
20. Kalamkari painting refers to
(a) a Hand-painted cotton textile in South India
(b) a handmade drawing on bamboo handicrafts in North-East India
(c) a block-painted woollen cloth in Western Himalayan region of India
(d) a hand-painted decorative silk cloth in North-Western India
21. Which one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India
(a) Saltwater crocodile
(b) Olive ridley turtle
(c) Gangetic dolphin
(d) Gharial
22. Consider the following matches:
1. Low clouds – Altostratus
2. Middle clouds – Stratus
3. High clouds – Cirrus
4. Clouds with vertical extent – Cumulus
Which of the above matches are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) All of these
23. Which of the following is/are not sources of methane?
1. Landfills
2. Coal mining
3. Rice cultivation
4. Petroleum and Natural Gas System
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
24. Consider the following statements in the context of architecture during Delhi Sultanate period
1. The material commonly used for plastering buildings was lime
2. The earliest mention of the existence of Sarai is from Balban’s time
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
25. Examine the following statements regarding the powers of the Governor
1. Appointment and removal of State Public Service Commission members is done by the Governor
2. The Governor acts as the Chancellor of all universities in the state
3. He causes to be laid before the State Legislature the reports of CAG relating to the state
4. He sends fortnightly reports to the President regarding the affairs of the state.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 2,3 and 4
(d) All of these
26. Consider the following statements
1. South Andaman is separated from Nicobar by Duncan’s passage
2. Little Andaman is separated from South Andaman By 10 Degree channel
3. Great Nicobar is located very close of Sumatra
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3
27. Match the following:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 1 3 2 4
28. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere because it absorbs
(a) the water vapour of the air and retains its heat
(b) the ultraviolet part of the solar radiation
(c) all the solar radiations
(d) the infrared part of the solar radiation
29. Which of the following is/are a source of Radioactive Pollution?
1. Production of nuclear weapon
2. Decommissioning of nuclear weapons
3. Mining of radioactive ore
4. Coal ash
5. Medical waste
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 1,2,3 and 4
(c) 1,2,3 and 5
(d) All of these
30. Consider the following statements Under Todar Mal’s bandobast in Akbar’s administration
1. The state was to advance loans to the cultivators which could be paid in easy annual installments
2. Remissions for revenues were granted in bad season
3. The Revenue collectors were required to write officially annual reports about the word, character and integrity of their subordinates
4. the accounts were to be kept in Hindi
Which of the statement(s) given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1,2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1,2,3 and 4
31. Match the following:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 2 1 3 4
32. Which of the following are not Directive Principles of State Policy?
1. Right to education
2. Maternity relief
3. Ban on child labour
4. Ban on begar
5. Uniform civil code
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1,3 and 4
(b) 1,2 and 5
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2,3 and 5
33. Consider the following statements Absence or inadequacy of proteins in human diet will produce
1. weakening of body’s defences against infections
2. impairment of body’s growth
3. impairment of hormones needed by the body
4. impairment of the cell’s ability to convert heat into energy
Which of the statement(s) given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1,2 and 3
34. Match the following:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 4 2 1 3
35. Which of the following matters are not included in the Union List?1. Defence
2. Prisons
3. Liquor policy
4. Ports
5. Irrigation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1,3 and 4
(b) 1,2 and 5
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2,3 and 5
36. Match the following:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 3 1 2 4
37.Match the following:
Choose the correct option:
(a) 1A,2B,3C,4D,5F,6E
(b) 1B,2C,3D,4E,5A,6F
(c) 1C,3D,3E,4F,5B,6A
(d) 1D,2E,3F,4A,5C,6B
38. Nephrology is related to which body organ?
(a) Kidney
(b) Lungs
(c) Liver
(d) Spleen
39. Which of the following taxes assigned to the Union and collected by the Union:
1. Stamp Duties
2. News paper sale and purchase and on advertisement
3. Custom duties
4. Land tax
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1,2,3 and 4
(b) 1,2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1 and 3
40. In which of the following activites are Indian Remote Sensin (IRS) satellites used?
1. Assessment of crop productivity
2. Locating groundwater resources
3. Mineral exploration
4. Telecommunications
5. Traffic studies
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 4 and 5 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1,2,3,4 and 5
41. Match the following:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 3 2 4 1
42. Which one of the following is the process involved in Photosynthesis?
(a) Potential energy is released to form free energy
(b) Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored
(c) Food is oxidized to release carbon dioxide and water
(d) Oxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide and water vapour are given out
43. Consider the following statements with reference to the state of Jammu and Kashmir
1. It forms a part of the ‘Territory of India’ as defined in Art 1 of the Constitution, being the fifteenth State included in the First Schedule of the Constitution
2. In the original Constitution, Jammu and Kashmir was specified as a ‘Part B’ State
3. The Legislative Assembly will consist of one hundred members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the State; and two women member nominated by the governor
4. There will be a Public Service Commission for the State. The Commission along with its Chairman will be appointed by the President
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1,2,3 and 4
(b) 1,2 and 3
(c) 1,3 and 4
(d) 2 only
44. Match List I with List II
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 2 3 4 1
45. Consider the following factors causes an increase in salinity of ocean water
1. High temperature
2. High humidit
3. Presence of winds
4. Presence of river mouths
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 1,2 and 3
(d) All of these
46. Consider the following statements regarding the Forest Right Act,2006
1. It aims at recognition of rights of forest dwelling scheduled tribes and other traditional forest dwellers on forests and forest land
2. The Forest Rights Act prescribes for empowering the forest right holders, Gram Sabhas and local level institutions in regard to protection of wildlife,forest, biodiversity and habitat, cultural and natural heritage
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
47. Consider the following statements about Gold ornaments
1. KDM in the gold ornaments stands for cadmium
2. Cadmium is used as a solder in making gold ornaments
3. Cadmium has been proven to expose artisans and fabricators to lung cancer and other respiratory disorders
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of these
48. Carbon dioxide dissolves more easily in seawater compared to pure water because sea water naturally contains.
(a) Salt
(b) minerals
(c) carbonate ions
(d) marine life
49. Match the following
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 2 3 4 1
50. The sales tax you pay while purchasing a toothpaste is a
(a) tax imposed by the Central Government
(b) tax imposed by the Central Government but collected by the State Government
(c) tax imposed by the State Government but collected by the Central Government
(d) tax imposed and collected by the State Government
Directions for the following 3 (three) items:
Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answer to these items should be based on the passages only
Passage-1
Countries with free and fair elections for the real policymakers and eligibility of all adults meet the minimum requirements for a procedural democracy. It is important to be aware that the presence of elections, even elections allowing several parties to run candidates, is not sufficient to qualify a country as a democracy. In some countries, the military council, dominant party, or strong-man ruler makes the real decisions behind the scenes, with an elected legislature as a facade. In other countries, the opposition parties are so disadvantaged in what they can say, or how freely they can organize, or how fairly their votes are counted that they have no real chance. Their organizers and supporters may be threatened or murdered. Although sometimes such countries are called by such names as “guarded democracy” or “illiberal democracy”, we consider them forms of electoral authoritarianism, not democracies at all.
In addition to the requisite free and fair competitive elections of procedural democracy, many more political rights and civil liberties are necessary for a country to be deemed a substantive democracy. Freedom of the press, freedom of organization, independence of the courts, and equal treatment of minorities are just a few examples of the qualities that may be minimally present in procedural democracy, but whose fuller realization is vital to a substantive democracy. In a substantive democracy, citizens have access to multiple sources of information They can use political and civil rights to enable themselves to learn about politics and to ‘try to influence the choices of others. They can form interest groups, trade unions and political parties. Citizens are generally free from abuses of their personal integrity through repressive governmental threats, political murders and disappearances, imprisonment, or torture for non-violent political activity.
Corruption is sufficiently controlled that the elected officials can meaningfully carry out public policies that the citizens desire. Sometimes we refer to achievements of substantive democracy as a “deepening” of democracy or an improvement in its democratic quality. No nation has perfectly achieved all the elements of substantive democracy, but some have progressed much further than others. All substantive democracies are, by definition, also procedural democracies, but the reverse is not necessarily true. The presence of a procedural democracy is a necessary but not sufficient condition for the development of substantive democracy.
1. As per the passage, not all the countries which are under a democratic setup are real democracies. Why?
I Not all the countries have their elected representatives enjoying the real power
II Elections may not be conducted in a fair manner in some of the countries
III The opposition parties in some countries do not enjoy the freedom in expressing their opinions
IV In some countries not all the adults have the eligibility to vote
(a) I only
(b) I and III only
(c) I,II and III
(d) I,II,III and IV
2. According to the author, which of the following can be called a real democracy?
(a) A country with an elected legislature
(b) A country where opposition parties have freedom
(c) A country which ensures free and fair elections and political and civil liberties for its citizens
(d) A country which is not under an authoritarian rule
3. Which of the following can be the best definition for a substantive democracy?
(a) A procedural democracy in which people enjoy more freedom
(b) A procedural democracy which assures political and civil liberties to its citizens
(c) A democracy which guarantees free and fair elections and where fuller realization of political and civil liberties are achieved
(d) A democracy in which deepening of democracy is achieved.
Directions for questions 4 and 5:
These questions are based on the following information.
Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F were born on different months among May, March, June, July, April and August but not necessarily in that order. Among them two are students, two are teachers and the remaining are doctors.
A was born in April, But is not a student F is a doctor and was not born in June. B and the person who is a teacher were born in March and July. Neither C nor D is A teacher. B and D belong to the same profession and D was not born in June.
4. Which among the following pairs of person are students?
(a) B,C
(b) C,D
(c) B,D
(d) E,B
5. The person who was born in June is a____________
(a) doctor
(b) teacher
(c) student
(d) cannot be determined
Directions for questions 6 to 10:
Select the correct alternative from the given choices.
6. If in the English alphabet, all the letters at odd-numbered positions are written in serial order from left to right followed by the letters at even-numbered positions written in reverse order, then which letter will be sixth to the left of the seventeenth letter from left?
(a) D
(b) B
(c) V
(d) U
7. How many four-digit numbers can be formed from the digits 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8 such that the digits are in descending order?
(a) 70
(b) 80
(c) 90
(d) 84
8. In a parade of Republic day celebrations, there are more than 1700 people. They are made to stand in rows so that the number of persons in each row is equal to the number of rows. What is the minimum number of rows required for this purpose?
(a) 42
(b) 64
(c) 81
(d) 36
9. If a bike travels 420 km in 7 hours and a car travels 810 km in 9 hours at their respective uniform speeds, then what is the ratio of the distances travelled by them in one hour?
(a) 2 : 3
(b) 3 : 2
(c) 3 : 4
(d) 4 : 3
10. The tankful water in Bhanu’s home lasts 28 days. If she starts using 40% more every day, how many days with the tankful water last?
(a) 12 days
(b) 24 days
(c) 14 days
(d) 20 days
Directions for questions 11 to 13:
Select the correct alternative from the given choices.
11. If ‘+’ means ‘/ ‘, ‘ -‘ means ‘ x’, ‘/’ means ‘-‘ and ‘x’ means ‘+’ then find the value of 24+4 x 2 / 6 -8.
(a) 40
(b) -48
(c) 56
(d) None of these
12. How is Ms. Latha’s sister only brother’s father’s daughter-in-law’s husband’s only son’s sister related to Latha?
(a) daughter
(b) niece
(c) sister-in-law
(d) sister
13. In a certain code, bike means car, car means train, train means aeroplane, aeroplane means bus, then which of the following vehicles runs on tracks in that language?
(a) train
(b) car
(c) aeroplane
(d) bike
Directions for questions 14 and 15:
Read the following passages carefully and answer the questions that follow them.
Passage-II
Gandhi’s attitude to the use of machinery seemed to undergo a gradual change. ‘What I object to,’ he said, ‘is the craze for machinery, not machinery as such’. If we could have electricity in every village home, I shall not mind villagers plying their implements and tools with electricity’. The big machines seemed to him to lead inevitably, at least in the circumstances of today, to the concentration of power and riches: consider it a sin and injustice to use machinery for the purpose of concentration of power and riches in the hands of the few. Today the machine is used in this way’. He even came to accept the necessity of many kinds of heavy industries and large-scale key industries and public utilities, provided they were state-owned and did not interfere with some kinds of cottage industries which he considered as essential. Referring to his own proposals, he said: The whole of this programme will be a structure on sand if it is not built on the solid foundation of economic equality’.
Thus even the enthusiastic advocates for cottage and small-scale industries recognize that big-scale industry is, to a certain extent, necessary and inevitable; only they would like to limit it as far as possible. Superficially then the question becomes one of emphasis and adjustment of the two forms of production and economy. It can hardly be challenged that, in the context of the modern world, no country can be politically and economically independent, even within the framework of international interdependence, unless it is highly industrialized and has developed its power resources to the utmost. Nor can it achieve or maintain high standards of living nor liquidate poverty without the aid of modern technology in almost every sphere of life. An industrially backward country will continually upset the world equilibrium and encourage the aggressive tendencies of more developed countries, Even if it retains its political independence, this will be nominal only, and economic control will tend to pass to others. This control will inevitably upset its own small-scale economy which it has sought to preserve in pursuit of its own view of life. Thus an attempt to build up a country’s economy largely on the basis of cottage and small-scale industries is doomed to failure. It will not solve the basic problems of the country or maintain freedom, nor will it fit in with the world framework, except as a colonial appendage
14. Which of the following does not support Gandhiji’s attitude to machinery?
(a) Machines will lead to unjust distribution of power and riches
(b) It is a sin to replace manual labour with machinery
(c) Interference of heavy industries with the traditional industries might affect the latter’s survival
(d) Cottage industries are essential for India.
15. Which of the following inferences cannot be drawn from the passage?
I Gandhiji was not against the use of heavy machines
II With the advent of machinery, it is very much certain that economic and social equality will be disrupted
III Mitigating poverty is not possible without the backing of modern technology
IV Less industrialized nations gradually tend to lose their economic freedom even within the framework of international interdependence
(a) I and II
(b) II only
(c) III only
(d) III and IV
Directions for questions 16 and 17:
These questions are based on the following information.
Six persons A, B, C, D, E and Fare sitting in arow and each of them is from a different city among Mumbai, Bangalore, Hyderabad, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai but not necessarily in that order.
B its adjacent to the persons who are from Chennai and Bangalore and neither of them sits at the ends. E sits to the left of the person from Chennai and is to the immediate right of F, who is from Hyderabad. A sits to the left of the person from Pune, and is not from Chennai. C is from Mumbai.
16. Who is from Kolkatta?
(a) B
(b) D
(c) E
(d) A
17. Who sits second to the right of B?
(a) E
(b) F
(c) D
(d) C
18. Four persons start walking simultaneously and their stride lenghts are measure 80 cm, 84 cm, 96 cm, and 90 cm respectively. What is the minimum distance each of them should walk so that they cover the same distance in complete steps?
(a) 80 m 80 cm
(b) 90 m 80 cm
(c) 100 m 80 cm
(d) 100m 90 cm
19. In a hostel, there was food for 1800 people for 24 days. After 12 days, 600 more people joined the hostel. How long would the people be able to carry ion with the remaining food?
(a) 3 days
(b) 9 days
(c) 6 days
(d) 4 days
20. A contract on marketing job specifies a penalty for delay in completion of the target beyond a certain date as follows: rs 720 for the first day, rs 810 for the second day, rs 900 for the third day, etc. the penalty for each succeeding day being rs 90 more than that of the preceding day. How much penalty should a contractor pay if he delays the target by 25 days?
(a) Rs 45000
(b) Rs 54000
(c) Rs 49000
(d) Rs 2880
21. In a rare collection of pens, there are three gold-coated pens for every eight non-gold coated pens. If 24 more gold coated pens are added to the collection and the ratio of the gold coated to the non-gold coated pens would be 2 : 5. Based on the information, the total number of pens in the collection now is _______________
(a) 984
(b) 1320
(c) 384
(d) 1344
22. A total of 24200 students from 11 districts- A through K participated in a national level quiz competition. The number of students from each district, from B to K is 45 less than the number of students from the preceding district. What is the least number of students from any district who participated in the competition?
(a) 975
(b) 1050
(c) 1975
(d) 1795
23. Out of 280 applicants for a customer care post, 160 are males and 140 know Hindi then, what is the ratio between the minimum to maximum number of males who know Hindi?
(a) 1 : 7
(b) 2 : 7
(c) 3 : 5
(d) 4 : 9
24. How many triangles are there in the given figure?
(a) 23
(b) 22
(c) 21
(d) more than 24
Directions for questions 25 and 26:
Find the missing number in the given figures.
25.
| 3 | 6 | 4 |
| 9 | 8 | 8 |
| 5 | 9 | 7 |
| 15 | 12 | ? |
(a) 28
(b) 14
(c) 16
(d) 18
26.
(a) 16
(b) 17
(c) 18
(d) 19
27. In a certain code language if ‘ LEAVE’ is coded as ’50’ and ‘HUMANS’ is coded as ’82’, then how is ‘PEOPLE’ coded in that language?
(a) 70
(b) 75
(c) 65
(d) 80
28. In a certain code language, if ‘YOURS’ is coded as ‘WMXPQ’, then how is the word ‘MESSAGE’ coded in that language?
(a) KCQVCIH
(B) KCQVYEC
(c) LCQUYDD
(d) KCQUYED
Directions for questions 29 and 30:
Read the following passages carefully and choose the best answer for each of the questions that follow.
Passage – III
If you drop your laptop computer, a chip built into it will sense the acceleration and protect the delicate moving parts of its hard disk before it hits the ground. A group of researchers at Stanford University are putting the same accelerometer chip to an intriguing new use: detecting earthquakes. They plan to create a network of volunteer laptops that can map out future quakes in far greater detail than traditional seismometers manage. Seismometers are large, expensive beasts, costing $10,000 or more a piece. They are designed to be exquisitely sensitive to the sort of vibrations an earthquake produces, which means they can pick up tremors that began halfway around the world. By contrast, the accelerometer chips in laptops are rather crude devices. They are, however, ubiquitous. Almost all modern laptops have them.
On its own, an accelerometer chip in laptop is not very useful for earthquake detection, as it cannot distinguish between a quake and .all sorts of other vibrations — the user tapping away at the keyboard, for example. But if lots of these chips are connected to a central server via the Internet, their responses can be compared. And if a large number in a particular place register a vibration at almost the same time, it is more likely to be an earthquake than a bunch of users all hitting their space bars. The Quake-Catcher Network (QCN) aggregates computing power from hundreds of thousands •of volunteer computers around the world. Merely detecting a quake, however, is not the point. Seismometers can do that. To be useful, the QQN needs to be able to do things that seismometers cannot. The network’s benefit is of sheer numbers. This should allow the construction of far more detailed maps of the up-and-down and sideto-side motions induced by earthquakes. These vary a lot from quake to quake and that means the damage done by a quake of any given strength is also variable. A better understanding of how movement and damage relate might help both building design and town planning in earthquake zones.
29. The passage states which of the following as a unique ability of the QCN?
(a) It can measure quakes in distant places
(b) It can protect the computer from damage in the event of an earthquake
(c) It is highly sensitive to the tremors an earthquake produces
(d) It can record details of earthquakes to a far greater extent
30. The passage states that an accelerometer chip can locate an earthquake through which of the following mechanisms?
(a) It protects delicate parts of a laptop computer’s hard disk from being damaged
(b) It can detect vibrations that can be compared to vibrations in other computers to detect the likelihood of an earthquake
(c) It can trigger the release of a device that can cushion the fall of the laptop computer
(d) It prevents strong tremors from damaging the computer by sending a signal to central server.
31. If a light beeps every 10th second starting from 11 A.M, find the number of times it will glow from 11 A.M to 1 P.M ( inclusive of both the ends) on the same day.
(a) 720
(b) 721
(c) 719
(d) 722
32. 20 people entered a classroom before Lakshmi. 10 people entered the classroom between Lakshmi and Roshini and 30 people entered the classroom after Roshni. If Roshni entered the classroom before Lakshmi, then how many people are there in the classroom?
(a) 40
(b) 50
(c) 62
(d) 21
33. What is the angle between the two hands of a clock at 7 hrs 20 min?
(a) 90
(b) 130
(c) 100
(d) 110
34. Complete the following series.
31/2, 21, 141, ___________, 4201
(a) 841
(b) 941
(c) 1241
(d) 2201
35. How many triangles are there in the following diagram?
(a) 12
(b) 5
(c) 9
(d) 8
Directions for questions 36 and 37:
In each of the following questions, two statements are followed by two conclusions labelled as I and II. Assume everything in the statements to be true even if they seem, to be at variance from the commonly known facts, and then decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) the statements disregarding the commonly known facts.
36. Statements:
All orchids are flowers.
Some orchids are beautiful
Conclusions:
I. Some flowers are beautiful
II. All beautiful are flowers
(a) If only conclusion I follows
(b) If only conclusion II follows
(c) If neither I nor II follows
(d) If both conclusions follow.
37. Statements:
All fashionable are addicts
All addicts are noteworthy
Conclusion:
I No noteworthy is fashionable
II Some noteworthy are fashionable
(a) If only conclusion I follows
(b) If only conclusion II follows
(c) If neither I nor II follows
(d) If both conclusions follow
38. A few Indian traders in China were beaten up severely by some Chinese businessmen, while the traders were doing business. The Government of India has sent a team of officials to China to look into the matter.
Which of the following is an Inference that can be drawn from the above statement? (An inference is something which is not directly stated but can be inferred from the given facts.)
(a) Chinese businessman do not like Indian traders to do business in their country
(b) The Chinese government should provide protection to the Indian traders
(c) Indian traders like to do business in China
(d) None of these
Directions for questions 39 and 40:
Select the correct alternative from the given choices
39. Census 2011 reveals a great increase in the percentage of people above 80 years of age as compared to that of 2001 census
Which of the following is a possible effect of the above situation?
(a) The number of people below the age of 25 may reduce
(b) The demand for old age homes may increase
(c) The number of natural deaths per day may increase
(d) The per capita income may come down as compared to the situation if there is no increase in the percentage of old population.
40. There has been an alarming trend in the increase in the number of children affected by malnutrition in the country and the situation may reach much higher levels if adequate steps are not taken to curtail the raise.
Which of the following can be an effective step to reverse the trend?
A. The government should start advising people to feed children with rich vitamins and minerals.
B. The government should start distributing diet food to children affected with malnutrition
C. The government should launch nationwide campaign to create awareness about the diet to be taken to avoid malnutrition
(a) A only
(b) A and B only
(c) A and C only
(d) B and C only
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