Bharathiyar University IAS Screening Test Question Paper 2017- ACCSCA

Bharathiyar University IAS Screening Test Question Paper 2017 in Eye Candy Format- ACCSCA. The question paper was shared with care by RiswanaBanu.

BHARATHIAR UNIVERSITY, COIMBATORE – 46
ANNA CENTENARY CIVIL SERVICES COACHING ACADEMY
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
SCREENING TEST BOOKLET
CSAT – 2018
PAPER-I & II
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200 Date: 10.11.2017
INSTRUCTIONS
Paper I (50 Questions x 2 Marks = 100 Marks)
Paper II (40 Questions x 2.5 Marks = 100 Marks)

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3. Please detach the answer sheet from the test booklet by carefully tearing on the perforated line.
4. This Test Booklet contains 90 items (Paper I – 50 questions + Paper II – 40 questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet by fully shading the relevant circle.
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10. There is no Penalty mark for wrong answers.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

Bharathiyar University IAS Screening Test Question Paper 2017:

PAPER – I

1. The jurisdiction of UPSC can be extended by
(a) Government via a resolution
(b) President
(c) Parliament
(d) (b) or (c) depending on the type extension

2. The telecom regulatory authority of India (TRA I)
1. Porter is the interests of telecom consumers
2. Can recommend the type of equipment to be used by service providers
3. Has the power to settle disputes between service providers
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b )1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3

3. The economic survey is compiled by:
(a) Office of economic adviser
(b) Central statistical office (CSO)
(c) National sample survey organization (LASSO)
(d) Department of economic affairs

4. Integrated child development services (ILDS) scheme aims to provide many services to children that includes:
1 School education
2. Nutrition support
3. immunization
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) I and 2 only
(b) I and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) I, 2 and 3

5. Which of the following gives ‘Global Gender Gap Index’ ranking to the countries of the world?
(a) World Economic Forum
(b) UN Human Rights Council
(c) UN Women
(d) World Health Organization

6. Who among the following was/were associated with the introduction of Ryotwari Settlement in India during the British Rule?
1. Lord Cornwallis
2. Alexander Read
3. Thomas Munro
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

7. With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBT Act)’, consider the following statements :
1. A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction.
2. Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government
3. The Act provided for three authorities for investigation but does not provide for any appellate mechanism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) 2 only
(c) I and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

8. The union executive of India consists of;
1. President
2. Vice-President
3. Prime Minister
4. Council of Ministers
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

9. Consider the following statements:
1. The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes.
2. AGMARK is cupidity certification Mark issued by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) Which of the statements given above is are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both I and 2
(d) Neither I nor 2

10. According to the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law?
1. Gharial
2. Indian Wild Ass
3. Wild Buffalo
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

11. The legislative assembly of Delhi can make laws on which of the following matters?
1. Public order
2. Police
3. Land
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) None

12. The Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the following countries?
1. Jordan
2. Iraq
3. Lebanon
4. Syria
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c)3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

13. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by
(a)anyone residing in India
(b) resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested
(c)any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency
(d) any citizen of India

14. Diamond is chemically
1. A mixture of metal carbonates
2. An impure form of carbon
3. A pure form of sand
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) None

15. In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cybersecurity incidents?
1. Service providers
2. Data centres
3. Body corporate
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

16. Which of the following statements relating to the Surrogacy Bill 2016 that has been introduced in the Lois Sabha are correct:’
1. The Non-resident Indians or People of Indian Origin card-holders will be allowed to take recourse to surrogacy services in India.
2. The Bill makes it mandatory for surrogate mothers to be married and be a close relative of the couple wanting a child She should also have given birth to a healthy child before bearing a baby for another couple.
3. A National Surrogacy Board chaired by the Health Secretary will be created to oversee implementation.
4. Legally wedded Indian couples can have a surrogate child only after five years of legal marriage and will require a medical certificate as proof of infertility.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1,2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 2,3 and 4 only

17. Consider the following statements:
1. Hepatitis A. Hepatitis B. and Hepatitis C are diseases caused different bacteria.
2. Hepatitis C appears only as an acute or newly occurring infection and does not become chronic
3. Hepatitis B is a transmissible disease – it spreads the same way as HIV.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) None of the above

18. Consider the following statements regarding Index of Industrial Production IIP) :
1. The All India IIP is a composite indicator that measures the short-term changes in the volume of production of a basket of industrial products during a given period with respect to a chosen base period
2. IIP gives maximum weight age to the manufacturing sector.
3. The base year for IIP is 2011-2012.
4. It is compiled and published monthly by the FICCI.
Which of the statements given above is-are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 and 4 only

19. Demonetisation of Rs. 500 and Rs. 1000 notes is likely to lower down GDP growth of India because
1. it has impacted the unorganized economic sectors negatively as transactions in these sectors are primarily done in cash.
2. it has reduced the commercial banks’ ability to give loans thereby reducing investment.
3. it has reduced assets of RBI and therefore its capacity to create money supply.
4. most of the economic production was based on black money transactions and therefore removal of black money has led to lower GDP growth.
Select the correct answer using code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

20. “Hikaku San Gensoku” was recently in news. What does it stand for?
(a) This is a nuclear reactor in Japan
(b) This is an organization working infield of nuclear generation in Japan
(c) They are non-nuclear principles adopted by Diet
(d) This is the name of Japanese nuclear technology

21. Which of the following symbols are protected under the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act 1971
1. National Flag of India
2. Constitution of India
3. State Emblem of India
4. National Anthem
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 1,2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

22. Consider the following statements:
1. Recently the ICUN has classified the conservation status of giraffes as vulnerable to extinction
2. The official status of giant panda has been changed from vulnerable to endangered because of population decline in China
Which of the statements given above is-are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d Neither 1 or 2

23. Which of the following facts about Malaria is are correct
1. It is caused by a bacterial parasite
2. The disease destroys the Red Blood Cells
3. Recently Nepal became the first nation to be declared free of Malaria by WHO
4. People with Sickle cell anaemia are relatively more vulnerable against malarial parasite
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 1,2 and 4 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 2 only

24. The 92-year-old practice of presenting a separate Rail Budget is set to come to an end from 2017, with the Finance Ministry accepting Railway Ministry proposal to merge it with the General Budget. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Railway budget?
1. The origin of the railway budget goes back to a report by British politician Ackworth in 1924.
2. A separate railway budget was recommended because most of the infrastructure spending by the British government went towards building railway lines.
3. The Union budget and the Railway budget are a Constitutional requirement and are presented under Article 112 of the Indian Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1,2, and 3
(d) 1 and 2 only

25. With which of the following ministries/institutions is the publication ‘Handbook of Statistics on the Indian Economy’ associated?
(a) Ministry of Finance
(b) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
(c) Central Statistical Organization
(d) Reserve Bank of India

26. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding NITI Aayog?
1. It has been set up as a government think-tank to advice both Central and State governments.
2. It aims to follow ‘bottom-up’ approach to development rather than a ‘top-down’ approach.
3. It will provide higher amount of funds to the states to promote cooperative federalism.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 Only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

27. Consider the following :
1. Tradewinds
2. Temperatures
3. Salinity of Oceans
4. Rotation of the Earth
5. Revolution of the Earth
6. Landmass
Which of the factors mentioned above are responsible for different types/patterns of “Ocean Currents”?
(a) 1,2,3 and 4 only
(b) 1,2,4 and 5 only
(c) 1,2,3,4 and 6 only
(d) 1 ,2, 3,4,5 and 6

28. Which of the statements given below about MGNREGA arc correct
1. The wages for a week of work have to be paid within 15 clays of completion of a work week, failing 11,which the workers should gel compensation for each day’s delay
2. Social Audit is statutorily mandated under AIGNREGA to monitor and evaluate the works
3. The scheme is implemented by the block development office (BDO).
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 Only
(d) 1 and 3 only

29. The Current Budget 2017-18 has proposed to provide ‘infrastructure status’ to ‘affordable housing’. In such a scenario a developer can
1. Avail long-term finance at cheaper rates from Banks and other Financial Institutions.
2. Contribute towards the goal of ‘Housing for All’
3. Become eligible for claiming tax and subsidy incentives.
4. Get access to External Commercial Borrowing (ECB)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 , 2 and 3 only
(b) 2,3 and 4 only
(c) 1,3 and 4 Only
(d) 1,2,3 and 4

30. With reference to Sardar Vallabhbhai Patch which of the following statements are correct?
1. He was the President of the Indian National Congress’s Karachi Session, 1931 in which the Resolution for Fundamental Rights and Economic Policy was passed.
2. He was the Chairman of the Committees responsible for fundamental rights. minorities tribal and excluded areas and provincial constitutions
3. He held the Home Minister, and Information and Broadcasting Ministry in the interim government.
4. He was bestowed with the title of ‘Sardar’ during Kheda Satyagraha
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2,3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 4 only

31. The dominant source of pollution due to oxides of nitrogen (N0x) in urban areas is
(a) Commercial Sector
(b) Energy use in Industry
(c) Power Plants
(d) Road transport

32. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below
List-I List-II
A. SWAYAM 1. Skill Certification Scheme
B. Pardhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojna 2. Online Courses
C. Skill Acquisition and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood Promotion (SANKALP) 3. Will provide market relevant training to 3.4 core youth
D. Skill Strengthening for Industrial Value Enhancement (STRIVE) 4. Industry cluster approach
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 4 3 1 2

33. Which of the following soil types are poor in phosphorus/phosphate nutrients?
1. Alluvial soil
2. Black soil
3. Red and Yellow soil
4 Laterite Soil
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2,3 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1,2 ,3 and 4

34. The implementing agency for the Central GST be :
(a) Central Board of Direct Taxation
(b) Central Board of Indirect Taxation
(c) Central Board of Excise & Customs
(d) A subunit of the GST Council

35. Consider the following statements about National Board for Wildlife:
1. It is a statutory body headed by the Prime Minister of India.
2. It has the power to approve projects in and around national parks and sanctuaries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

36. The Minamata Convention deals with :
(a) Protection of ozone layer
(b) Transboundary movement of hazardous waste
(c) Shipbreaking and salvage industry
(d) Anthropogenic emissions and release of mercury

37. What is the correct sequence of the following hills in India from south to north?
1. Anaimalai Hills
2. Cardamom hills
3. Nilgiri hills
4. Juvadi hills
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(b) 2, I, 3, 4
(c) 2, I, 4, 3
(d) 3, 4, 2, 1

38. Which of the following can be used as bio-pesticides?
1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Virus
4. Protozoa
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1,2,3 and 4

39. Which of the following radioactive elements is/are found in the human body?
1. Potassium-40
2. Carbon- 1 4
3. Uranium
4. Thorium
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2,3 and 4

40. Tipaitnukh darn, which was in news, recently, is being constructed on which river and in which State?
(a) The Brahmaputra river in Arunachal Pradesh
(b) The Barak river in Manipur
(c) The Barak river in Tripura
(d) The Towing river in Arunachal Pradesh

41. Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?
1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
3.Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only.
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

42. The power of the Supreme court of India to decide disputes between the centre and the states falls under its
(a) advisory jurisdiction
(b) appellate jurisdiction
(c) original jurisdiction
(d) writ jurisdiction

43. The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in
(a) the President of India
(b) the Parliament
(c) the Chief Justice of India
(d) the Law Commission

44. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-detection?
(a) Second Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule

45. In addition to fingerprint scanning which of the following can be used in the biometric identification of a person?
1. Iris scanning
2. Retinal scanning
3. Voice recognition
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) I and 3 only
(d) I, 2 and 3

46. Which of the Wowing elements %% err used during the Indus valley civilization (IVC)?
1. Copper
2. Bronze
3.Iron
4. Silver
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b)1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) I, 2 and 4 only

47. The Brahma Samaj, started by Raja Ram Mohan Roy
1. Laid emphasis on human dignity
2. Opposed monotheism
3. Was against idolatry
Select the correct answer using the code given below 
(a) I and 2 only
(b) I and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

48. Consider the following towns of India:
1. Bhadrachalam
2. Chanderi
3. Kancheepuram
4. Karnal
Which of the above are famous for the production of traditional sarees fabric?
(a) I and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) I, 3 and 4

49. Consider the following pairs :
1.Garba – Gujarat
2. Mohiniattam: Odisha
3. Yakshagana: Karnataka
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

50. The bile juice secreted by liver contains which of the following enzyme?
1. Pepsin
2. Trypsin
3. Ptyalin
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) None

 

PAPER – II

Directions for the following 8 (eight) items:

Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should he based on the passages only.

Passage- 1

The subject of democracy has become severely muddled because of the way the rhetoric surrounding it has been used in recent years. There is, increasingly, an oddly confused dichotomy between those who want to ‘impose’ democracy on countries in the non-Western world (in these countries ‘own interest’, of course) and those who are opposed to such ‘imposition’ (because of the respect for the countries’ `own ways’). But the entire language of `imposition’, used by both sides, is extraordinarily inappropriate since it makes the implicit assumption that democracy belongs exclusively to the West, taking it to be a quintessentially ‘Western’ idea which has originated and flourished only in the West.

But the thesis and the pessimism it generates about the possibility of democratic practice in the world would be extremely hard to justify. There were several experiments in local democracy in ancient India. Indeed, in understanding the roots of democracy in the world, we have to take an interest in the history of people participation and public reasoning in different parts of the world. We have to look beyond thinking of democracy only in terms of European and American evolution. We would fail to understand the pervasive demands for participatory living, on which Aristotle spoke with far-reaching insight, if we take democracy to be a kind of a specialized cultural production of the West. It cannot, of course, be doubted that the institutional structure of the contemporary practice of democracy is largely the product of European and American experience over the last few centuries. This is extremely important to recognize since these developments in institutional formats were immensely innovative and ultimately effective. There can be little doubt that there is a major ‘Western’ achievement here.

1. Which of the following is closest to the view of democracy as mentioned in the above passage?

(a) The subject of democracy is a muddle due to a desire to portray it as a Western concept. ‘alien’ to non-Western countries.
(b) The language of imposition of democracy is inappropriate. There is, however. a need to consider this concept in the backdrop of culture of ‘own ways’ of non-Western society.
(c)While democracy is not essentially a Western idea belonging exclusively to the West, the institutional structure of current democratic practices has been their contribution.
(d) None of the statements (a). (b) and (c) given above is correct.

2. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. Many of the non-Western countries are unable to have democracy because they take democracy to be a specialized cultural product of the West,
2. Western countries are always trying to impose democracy on non-Western countries.

Which of the above is/are valid assumption/assumptions?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Passage – 2

Corporate governance is based on principles such as conducting the business with all integrity and fairness. being transparent with regard to all transactions, making all the necessary disclosures and decisions. complying with all the laws of the land, accountability and responsibility towards the stakeholders and commitment to conducting business in an ethical manner. Another point which is highlighted on corporate governance is the need for those in control to be able to distinguish between what are personal and corporate funds while managing a company.

Fundamentally, there is a level of confidence that is associated with a company that is known to have good corporate governance. The presence of an active group of independent directors on the board contributes a great deal towards ensuring confidence in the market. Corporate governance is known to be one of the criteria that foreign institutional investors are increasingly depending on when deciding on which companies to invest in. It is also known to have a positive influence on the share price of the company. Having a clean image on the corporate governance front could also make it easier for companies to source capital at more reasonable costs. Unfortunately, corporate governance often becomes the centre of discussion only after the exposure of a large scam.

3.According to the passage, which of the following should be the practice/ practices in good corporate governance?

1. Companies should always comply with labour and tax laws of the land
2. Every company in the country should have a government representative as one of the independent directors on the board to ensure transparency.
3. The manager of a company should never invest his personal funds in the company.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) I and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

4. According to the passage, which of the following is/are the major benefit/ benefits of good corporate governance ?

1. Good corporate governance leads to increase in share price of the company.
2. A company with good corporate governance always increases its business turnover rapidly.
3. Good corporate governance is the main criterion for foreign institutional investors when they decide to buy a company.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below: –

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Passage – 3

Malnutrition most commonly occurs between the ages of six months and two years. This happens despite the child’s food requirements being less than that of an older child. Malnutrition is often attributed to poverty, but it has been found that even in households where adults eat adequate quantities of food, more than 50 percent of children-under-five do not consume enough food. The child’s dependence on someone else to feed him/her is primarily responsible for the malnutrition. Very often the mother is working and the responsibility of feeding the young child is left to an older sibling. It is, therefore, crucial to increase awareness regarding the child’s food needs and how to satisfy them.

5. According to the passage, malnutrition in children can be reduced

(a) if the children have a regular intake of food.
(b) after they cross the age of five.
(c) if the food needs of younger children are known.
(d) if the responsibility of feeding younger children is given to adults.

6. According to the author, poverty is not the main cause of malnutrition, but the fact that

1. taking care of younger ones is not a priority for working mothers
2. awareness of nutritional needs is not propagated by the Public Health authorities.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both I and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Passage – 4

A number of empirical studies find that farmers are risk-averse, though only moderately in many cases. There is also evidence to show that farmers’ risk aversion results in cropping patterns and input use designed to reduce risk rather than to maximize income. Farmers adopt a number of strategies to manage and cope with agricultural risks. These include practices  like crop and field diversification, non-farm employment, storage of stocks and strategic migration of family members. There are also institutions ranging from share tenancy to kinship, extended family and informal credit agencies. One major obstacle to risk sharing by farmers is that the same type of risks can affect a large number of farmers in the region. Empirical studies show that the traditional methods are not adequate. Hence there is a need for policy interventions, especially measures that cut across geographical regions.

Policies may aim at tackling agricultural risks directly or indirectly. Examples of risk-specific policies are crop insurance, price stabilization and the development of varieties resistant to pests and diseases. Policies which affect risk indirectly are irrigation, subsidized credit and access to information. No single risk-specific policy is sufficient to reduce risk and is without side-effects, whereas policies not specific to risk influence the general situation and affect risks only indirectly. Crop insurance, as a policy measure to tackle agricultural risk directly, deserves careful consideration in the Indian context and in many other developing countries —because the majority of farmers depend on rain-fed agriculture and in many areas yield variability is the predominant cause of their income instability.

7. The need for policy intervention to mitigate risks in agriculture is because

(a) farmers are extremely risk-averse.
(b) farmers do not know how to mitigate risks.
(c) the methods adopted by farmers and existing risk-sharing institutions are not adequate.
(d) majority of farmers depend on rain-fed agriculture.

8. Which of the following observations emerges from the above passage?

(a) One can identify a single policy that can reduce risk without ant. side-effect.
(b) No single risk-specific policy is sufficient to reduce agricultural risk.
(c) Policies which affect risk indirectly can eliminate it
(d) Government ‘s policy intervention  can mitigate agricultural risk completely

9. There are five hobby clubs in a college viz., photography, yachting, chess, electronics and gardening. The gardening group meets every second day. the electronics group meets every third day, the chess group meets every fourth day, the yachting _group meets every fifth day and the photography group meets every sixth day.

How many times do all the five groups meet on the same day within 180 days?

(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 10
(d) 18

10. Seven men A, B. C, D, E, F and G are standing in a queue in that order. Each one is wearing a cap of a different colour like violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red. D is able to see in front of him green and blue but not violet. E can see violet and yellow, but not red. G can see caps of all colours other than orange. If E is wearing an indigo coloured cap, then the colour of the cap worn by F is

(a) Blue
(b) Violet
(c) Red
(d) Orange

Directions for the following 3 (three) items:

Read the passage below and answer the items that follow.

A, B, C, D, E, F, is members of a family. They are engineer, stenographer, doctor, draughtsman, lawyer and judge (not in order). A, the engineer is married to the lady stenographer. The judge is married to the lawyer. F, the draughtsman is the son of B and brother of E. C, the lawyer is the daughter-in-law of D. E is the unmarried doctor. D is the grandmother or F. There are two married couples in the family.

11. What is the profession of B?

(a) Judge .
(b) Lawyer
(c) Draughtsman
(d) Cannot be determined

12.Which of the following is /are couple/couples?

(a) AD only
(b) BC only
(c) Both AD and BC
(d) Both AC and BD

13. What is the profession of D?

(a) Judge
(b) Stenographer
(c) Doctor
(d) Cannot be determined

14. Six identical cards are placed on a table. Each card has number I’ marked on one side and number ‘2’ marked on its other side. All the six cards are placed in such a manner that the number ‘1’ is on the upper side. in one try, exactly four (neither more nor less) cards are turned upside down. In how many least number of tries can the cards be turned upside down such that all the six cards show number ‘2’ on the upper side?

(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) This cannot be achieve

15. Consider the following statements

1.A primary group is relatively smaller in size.
2 Intimacy is an essential characteristic of a primary group.
3.A family may be an example of a primary group.

In the light of the above statements, which one of the following is true?

(a) All families group primary groups.
(b)All primary groups are families.
(c) A group of smaller size is always a primary group.
(d) Members of a primary group know each other intimately.

Direction for the following 5 (five) items:

Study the two figures given below and answer the items that follow:

 

16. How many physics professors belong to the age group 35 — 44?

(a) 18
(b) 16
(c) 14
(d) 12

17. Which one of the following disciplines has the highest ratio of males to females?

(a) Physics
(b) Mathematics
(c) Chemistry
(d) Economics

18.What percentage of all psychology professors are females?

(a) 40%
(b) 50%
(c) 60%
(d) 70%

19. If the number of female physics professors in the age group 25 — 34 equals 25% of all the physics professors in that average group. then what is the number of male physics professors in the age group 25 – 34?

(a) 9
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 2

20. If the psychology, professors in the university constitute 2% of all the professors in the university, then what is the number of professors in the university?

(a) 400
(b) 500
(c) 600
(d) 700

Directions for the following 2 (two) items :

Read the following passage and answer the two items that follows. Your answers to these items should he based on the passage only.

Passage

Ecological research over the last quarter of the century has established the deleterious effects of habitat fragmentation due to mining. highways and such other intrusions on forests. When a large block of forests gets fragmented into smaller bits. the edges of all these bits come into contact with human activities resulting in the degradation of the entire forests. Continuity of forested landscapes and corridors gets disrupted affecting several extinction — prone species of wildlife. Habitat fragmentation is therefore considered as the most serious threat to biodiversity conservation. Adhoc grants of forest lands to mining companies coupled with rampant illegal mining is aggravating acing this threat.

21. What is the central focus of this passage?

(a) Illegal mining in forests
(b) Extinction of wildlife
(c) Conservation of nature
(d) Disruption of habitat

22. What is the purpose of maintaining the continuity of forested landscapes and corridors?

1.Preservation of biodiversity.
2.Management of mineral resources.
3.Grant of forest lands for human activities.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3

23. In a rare coin collection, there is one gold coin for every three non-gold coins. 10 more gold coins are added to the collection and the ratio of gold coin to non-gold coins would be 1:2. Based on the information, the total number of coins in the collection now becomes

(a) 90
(b) 80
(c) 60
(d) 50

24. A person can walk a certain distance and drive back in six hours. He can also walk both ways in 10 hours. How much time will he take to drive both ways?

(a) Two hours
(b) Two and a half hours
(c) Five and a half hours
(d) Four hour.

25.Consider the following figure and answer the item that follows:

 

What is the minimum number of different colours required to paint the figure given above such that no two adjacent regions have the same colour?

(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6

26. Consider the following figure and answer the item that follows:

15
	48

A square is divided into four rectangles as shown above. The lengths of the sides of rectangles are natural numbers_ The areas of two rectangles are indicated in the figure. What is the length of each side of the square?

(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 15
(d) Cannot be determined as the given data are insufficient

27. A student on her first 3 tests received an average score of N points. If she exceeds her previous average score by 20 points on her fourth test, then what is the average score for the first 4 tests?

(a) N+ 20
(b) N + 10
(c) N-4
(d) N + 5

28. In a group of persons, 70% of the persons are male and 30% of the persons are married. If two-sevenths of the males are married, what fraction of females is single?

(a) 2/7
(b) 1/3
(c) 3/7
(d) 2/3

29.Three persons start walking together and their steps measure 40 cm. 41 cm and 45 cm respectively. What is the minimum distance each should walk so that each can cover the same distance in complete steps?

(a) 25m 20cm
(b) 50m 40cm
(c) 75m 60cm
(d) 100m 80cm

30.Consider the following figure and answer the item that follows:

 

What is the total number of triangles in the above grid?

(a) 27
(b) 26
(c) 23
(d)22

31. The elements of the problem figure given below are changing with a certain rule as we observe them from left to right :

 

According to this rule. which of the following would be the next figure if the chances were continued with the same rule

32. Consider the following information regarding the performance of a class of 1000 students in four different tests:

Test	I	II	III	IV
Average Marks	60	60	70	80
Rank of Marks	30 to 90	45 to 75	20 to 100	0 to 100

If a student scores 74 marks in each of the four tests, in which one of the following tests is her performance the best comparatively)?

(a) Test 1
(b) Test II
(c) Test III
(d) Test IV

33.Which one of the figures shown below occupies the blank space (?) in the matrix given above?

(a)

34. There are four routes to travel from city A to city B and six routes from city B to city C. How many routes are possible to travel from the city A to city C?

(a) 24
(b) 12
(c) 10
(d) 8

35. A sum of Rs 700 has to be used to give seven cash prizes to the students of a school for their overall academic performance. If each prize is Rs 20 less than its preceding prize. what is the least value of the prize?

(a) Rs. 30
(b) Rs. 40
(c) Rs. 60
(d) Rs. 80

36. Consider the following three statements:

1. Only students can participate in the race.
2. Some participants in the race are girls.
3. All girl participants in the race are invited for coaching.

Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?

(a) All participants in the race are invited for coaching.
(b) All students are invited for coaching.
(c) All participants in the race are students
(d) None of the statements (a) (b) and (c) given above is correct.

37. A, B. C, D and E belong to five different cities P, Q, R, S and T (not necessarily in that order). Each one of them comes from a different city. Further, it is given that:

1. B and C do not belong to Q
2. B and E do not belong to P and R
3. A and C do not belong to R. S and T

4. D and E do not belong to Q and T

Which of the following statements is not correct?

(a) C belongs to P
(b) D belongs to R
(c) A belongs to Q
(d) B belongs to S

38. There are some balls of red, green and yellow colour lying. on a table. There are as many red balls as there are yellow balls. There are twice as many yellow balls as there are green ones. The number of red balls

(a) is equal to the sum of yellow and green balls
(b) is double the number of green balls
(c) is equal to yellow balls minus green balls
(d) cannot be ascertained

39. Examine the following statements:
1.Rama scored more than Rama
2.Rama scored more than Ratna
3. Rani scored less than Rama
4. Padma scored more than Rama but less than Rama
Who scored the highest?

(a) Rama
(b) Padma
(c) Rani
(d) Ratna

40. Consider the following statement: “Though quite expensive television is not luxury item, as one can learn many things through television”.
Which of the following is a valid inference from the above statement?

(a) 411 expensive things are regarded as the luxury
(b) All essential things for learning are not luxury
(c) Television is essential for learning
(d) Television is not a luxury item

 

 

Bharathiyar University IAS Screening Test Question Paper 2017.

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