Manidhaneyam Entrance Question Paper 2013

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Manidhaneyam Entrance Question Paper 2013:

1 The western disturbances which cause rain in north west India originate in
a) Black Sea
b) Caspian sea
c) Ural sea
d) Mediterranean sea

2 Consider the following countries:
1. Australia
2. Namibia
3. Brazil
4. Chile
Through which of the above does the Tropic of Capricorn pass?
a) 1 only
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

3 A state in India has the following characteristics:
1. Its northern part is arid and semi-arid.
2. Its central part produces cotton.
3. Cultivation of cash crops is predominant over food crops.
Which one of the following states has all of the above characteristics?a) Andhra Pradesh
b) Gujarat
c) Karnataka
d) Tamilnadu

4 At which one of the following places do two important rivers of India originate, while one of them flows towards north and merges with another important river flowing towards Bay of Bengal, the other one flow towards Arabian Sea?
a) Amarkantak
b) Badrinath
c) Mahabaleshwar
d) Nasik

5 Consider the following countries:
1. Switzerland 2. Malta 3. Bulgaria 
Which of the above are members of European Union?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

6 Which one of the following pairs of states and tribes is not correctly matched?
a) Assam-Miri
b) Nagaland-Konyak
c) Arunachal-Apatani
d) Madhya Pradesh-Lambada

7 Assertion (A): Gang plain is the most densely populated part of India.
Reason (R): Ganga is the most harnessed river of India.
a) Both A and R are True and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are True and R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is True but R is False
d) A is False but R is True

8 Assertion (A): River Kalinadi is an east-flowing river in the southern part of India.
Reason (R): The Deccan Plateau is higher along its western edge and gently slopes towards the Bay of Bengal in the east.
a) Both A and R are True and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are True and R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is True but R is False
d) A is False but R is True

9 Consider the following:
1. Mahadeo Hills
2. Sahyadri Parvat
3. Satpura Range
What is the correct sequence of the above from the north to the south?
a) 1,2,3
b) 2,1,3
c) 1,3,2
d) 2,3,1

10 Match List I ( National Park/Sanctuary) with List II (State) and select the correct answer
A. Kanger Ghati National        1. Chhattisgarh Park
B. Nagerhole National             2. Haryana Park
C. Kugti Wildlife sanctuary      3. Himachal Pradesh
D. Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary    4. Karnataka

a) A-3; B-2; C-1; D-4
b) A-1; B-4; C-3; D-2
c) A-3; B-4; C-1; D-2
d) A-1; B-2; C-3; D-4

11 Assertion (A): Bangalore receives much higher average annual rainfall than that of Mangalore.
Reason (R): Bangalore has the benefit of receiving rainfall both from south-west and north-east monsoons.
a) Both A and R are True and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are True and R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is True but R is False
d) A is False but R is True

12 Amongst the following Indian States which one has the minimum total forest cover?
a) Sikkim
b) Goa
c) Karnataka
d) Haryana

13 An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initated by the
1. LokSabha
2. RajyaSabha
3. State Legislature
4. President
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2,3,4

14 A bill for alteration of boundaries of states shall not be introduced in the Parliament without the recommendation of
a) The presiding officers of both Houses of Parliament
b) The legislatures of the states concerned
c) Supreme Court
d) President

15 When can the Speaker exercise his right to vote in the House?
a) Whenever he desires
b) Whenever the House desires
c) Only in the event of equality of votes
d) Whenever his party directs

16 Consider the following pairs:
1. B. G. Tilak – founder of the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha
2. Madan Mohan Malaviya – founder of Banaras Hindu University
3. Keshah Chandra Sen – Leader of Brahmo Samaj
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2,3

17 Consider the following statement:
The Cripps Proposals include the provision for
1. Full independence for India.
2. Creation of Constitution-making body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above

18 Consider the following statements in regard to Rowlatt Act:
1. Rowlatt Act was passed in 1919
2. It was an act which gave the Britist government massive power to represt political Activities.
3. The act allowed that government to arrest anybody without a trial for two years.
which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2,3

19 Consider the following statements in regard to Khilafat Movement’:
1. ‘Khilafat Movement’, an organization that wanted to protect the position of the Ottoman sultan as spiritual leader of all Muslims.
2. The Khilafat committee was formed in Bombay in March 1919 to defend the power of Khalifa.
3. Brother Muhammed Ali and Shaukat ali were two active khilafat leaders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2,3

20 Consider the following statements:
1. Raja Rammohun Roy was an advocate of ethical social reform, and political liberalism in India
2. He was the founder of Banaras Hindu University
3. He attacked the practice of Sati
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2,3

21 Regarding the Indus Valley Civilization, consider the following statements:
1. It was predominantly a secular civilization and the religious element, though present, did not dominate the scene.
2. During this period, cotton was used for manufacturing textiles in India. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above

22 Consider the following statements:
1. The Cholas defeated Pandya and Chera rulers and established their domination over peninsular India in the early medieval times.
2. The Cholas sent an expedition against Sailendra empire of South East Asia and conquered some of the areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above

23 What is the correct chronological order in which the following kings ruled in India?

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1-2-3-4
b) 4-3-2-1
c) 2-3-4-1
d) 3-1-4-2

24 One of the main factors that led to rapid expansion of Indian exports is
a) Liberalisation of the economy
b) Diversification of exports
c) Imposition of export duties
d) Recession in other countries

25 In a country like India, why should an increase of direct taxes be preferred to an increase in indirect taxes
a) Direct taxes serve the end of socialism by taking away the excessive wealth from the rich
b) Direct taxes involve the well off sections of the society which indirect taxes affect the masses
c) It is easy to realise direct taxes and is this useful in a country troubled by tax evasion
d) All of the above

26 Our financial system has provided for the transfer of resources from the centre to the states; the important means of resource transfer are
a) Tax sharing
b) Grants in aid
c) loans
d) All the above

27 Excise duty is a tax levied on the
a) Import of Goods
b) Export of Goods
c) Production of Goods
d) Sale of Goods

28 Which is not the characteristic of socialist or planned economy?
a) Government is the owner of resources
b) Production decisions are determined by the government
c) Profit motive
d) None of the above

29 Reasons for the privatisation and liberalisation of public sector after 1991 are______
a) Corruption
b) Lack of efficiency in work
c) Ineffective management
d) All of the above

30 The largest source of National Income in India is _____
a) Agriculture Sector
b) Industry Sector
c) Service Sector
d) Trade Sector

31 The fundamental duties of Indian Citizens were added to the Indian Constitution by the:
a) 42 nd Amendment
b) 44 th Amendment
c) 73 rd Amendment
d) 74 th Amendment

32 The judicial functions of the Indian Parliament are
a) It can remove the President out of office
b) It can impeach the President
c) It can impeach the judges of the Supreme Court and the High Court of India
d) All of the above

33 The head of the council of Ministers and the actual head of the central government is the 
a) President
b) Cabinet Ministers
c) Prime Minister
d) Vice President

34 What is often called as ‘the Identify Card ‘of the constitution?
a) Fundamental Rights
b) Directive Principles
c) Preamble
d) Fundamental Duties

35 Which of the following features does not belong to a federal government?
a) Both Central and State Government have co-ordinate status.
b) Both Central and State Governments derive powers from the Constitution.
c) The government has two distinct levels, State Government and Central Government.
d) State Government are agents of the Central Government.

36 The council of states is a permanent body, but as nearly as possible
a) Half of its members retire every 2 years
b) Half of its members retire every 3 years
c) 1/3rd of its members retire every 3 years
d) 1/3rd of its members retire every 2 years

37 The President can promulgate an ordinance
a) When there is a conflict between the two Houses regarding a particular bill
b) When a bill passed by the Lok Sabha is not passed by the Rajya Sabha
c) When both the Houses of the Parliament are not in session
d) When the Lok Sabha has been dissolved

38 The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is
a) Nominated by the President
b) Elected by Parliament and State Legislatures jointly
c) Elected by members of both Houses of Parliament
d) Elected by the members of Rajya Sabha

39 Which of the following writs is issued by the court in case of illegal detention of a person?
a) Quo Warranto
b) Habeas Corpus
c) Mandamus
d) Certiorari

40 Government imposes taxes to?
a) check the accumulation of wealth among the rich
b) Run the machinery of state
c) Uplift weaker sections
d) None of these

41 During the course of prolonged starvation and fasting, glucose or glycogen is synthesized from non-carbohydrate precursors by the process of
a) Glycogenesis
b) Glycolysis
c) Gluconeogenesis
d) Glycogenolysis

42 Match the following and choose the correct code:
List I
A) Programmed cell death
B) RBC disintegration 
c) Protein Synthesis
d) ATP synthesis

List II
1) Mitochondria
2) Lysosomes
3) Spleen
4) Endoplasmic Reticulum

A   B   C   D
a) 2   3   4   1
b) 1   2   3   4
c) 1   3   2   4
d) 4   2   3   1

43 Roughage, a necessary constituent of diet, consists largely of indigestible
a) Carbohydrates such as cellulose & lignin
b) Carbohydrates and unsaturated fully acids
c) Carbohydrates and semi-cooked meant
d) Proteins and essential minerals

44 Match the following and choose the correct code:
List I                 List II
A) Auxin          1) Fruit Ripening
B) Gibberellin  2) Bolting
C) Ethylene       3) Cell division
D) Zeatin           4) Fruit development
A   B   C   D
a) 1   3   2   4
b) 4   2   1   3
c) 3   1   4   2
d) 4   3   1   2

45 Melatonin is:
a) Secreted by pineal gland for sleep-related issues.
b) Pigment secreted by sebaceous gland for complexion
c) A hyperthyroid drug made from melon
d) A drug for improving skin complexion

46 The working principle of a washing machine
a) Centrifugation
b) Dialysis
c) Reverse osmosis
d) Diffusion

47 Ultrasonic’s is used for
a) Locating underwater objects and finding their depth
b) Diagnosing abnormalities or diseases in human organs such as liver, pancreas, kidneys & heart
c) Mapping underground structures for oil & mineral deposits
d) All the above

48 Consider the following statements:
i) GPS is a one-way system, which means that users can only receive the satellite signals
ii) GPS Satellites are arranged so that four satellites are placed in each of six orbital planes
Which of the above is correct?
a) i only
b) ii only
c) Both i and ii
d) Neither i nor ii

49 Portland cement is primarily made from 
i) lime stone minerals
ii) certain clay
iii) gypsum
iv) silica
The correct statement about Portland cement is
a) i only
b) iv only
c) i, ii & iii
d) iii only

50 Consider the following statements:
i) Aspartame and sorbitol are the artificial sweeteners used in food and beverage industry
ii) They are laxatives in nature
Which are correct
a) i only
b) ii only
c) all the above
d) none of the above

51 Consider the following statements:
1) Anhydrous sodium carbonate is commonly known as baking soda
2) Baking soda is used in fire extinguishers
3) Bleaching powder is manufacture in Hasendever plant
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1,2 & 3
b) 2 & 3
c) 3 only
d) 1 & 2

52 Which of the following pairs is/are wrong?
1) Freshwater ecosystem – pond, pools etc
2) marine ecosystem-open sea and shallow sea
3) Brackish water ecosystem – estuaries, salt marshes
a) only 1
b) all of these
c) only 2 & 3
d) none of these

53 What is the meaning of the word “endemic”
a) Rare and occur only in a few locations
b) Rare and occur everywhere
c) Abundant and seen everywhere
d) Abundant and only in few locations

54 Which of the following is the correctly matched
a) Smoke – Fine carbon particles along with gases produced due to incomplete combustion of organic matter
b) Soot = Bigger particles of carbon hanging in air along with tar
c) Smog = Mixture of smoke particles and vapours of liquids formed due to photo – chemical reactions
d) Haze = The suspension of liquid particles in air

55 List I                 List II
Pollutants             Impact
1) Asbestos          A) Pneumoconiosis
2) Dust of coal     B) Asbestosis
3) Textile dust      C) Silicosis
4) silica dust         D) Byssinosis
1   2   3   4
a) B   A   D  C
b) B   D   A  C
c) C   A   B   D
d) A   B   C   D

56 Which is the apex institution to provide credit facility at agriculture and rural development?
a) NABARD
b) State Bank of India
c) Reserve Bank of India
d) National Cooperative Bank of India

57 Highest per capita income is inversely co-realed with the proportion of active population engaged in
a) service
b) industry
c) agriculture
d) All of these

58 In India, the first bank of limited liability managed by Indians and founded in 1881 was
a) Hindustan Commercial Bank
b) Oudh Commercial Bank
c) Punjab National Bank
d) Punjab and Sind Bank

59 The ‘Bombay Plan’ drafted by GD Birla and JRD Tata emphasized
a) That the economy should be left to the dynamic investments by the private sector in heavy industries
b) The public sector investments in infrastructure and heavy industries
c) Annual planning
d) That the private sector should foot the bill for intensive and low return investments in the industrial sector

60 Which of the following rate is not determined by RBI?
a) Bank rate
b) SLR
c) PLR
d) CRR

61 In what proportion must coffee at Rs.21 per Kg be mixed with coffee at Rs.28 per kg. So that the mixture be worth Rs.25 a kg?
a) 4:3
b) 4:5
c) 5:4
d) 3:4

62 A mixture of a certain quantity of milk with 25 litres of water is worth Rs.2 per litre. If pure milk be worth Rs.12 per litre how much milk is there in the mixture?
a) 5 litres
b) 7 litres
c) 6 litres
d) 4 litres

63 The average of 3 numbers is 7, that of the first two is 4, find the third number,
a) 13
b) 19
c) 12
d) 11

64 The average age of 24 boys in a class is 16 years. If the teacher’s age is included the average age of the boys and the teacher becomes 18 years. What is the teacher’s age?
a) 64 years
b) 62 years
c) 66 years
d) 60 years

65 The average of 15 results is 28, that of the first seven is 26 and that of the last seven is 25. Find the value of the 8th number.
a) 36
b) 66
c) 65
d) 63

66 If MALE and RAIN are coded as THNP and SHYU respectively, what will MAIN be coded as?
a) TSHY
b) THYU
c) NPSH
d) YUPT

Directions for questions(67-70):
In each question below are given two statements followed by two conclusion numbered I and II. You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusion and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Given Answer:
. If only conclusion I follows
. If only conclusion II follows
. If neither I nor II follows
. E if both I and II follows

67 Statements: 
All fish are tortoise.
No tortoise is a crocodile 
Conclusions:
I. No crocodile is a fish
II. Mo fish is a crocodile

68 Statements:
Some dedicated souls are angels. All social workers are angles. Conclusions:
I. Some dedicated souls are social workers
II. Some social workers are dedicated souls

69 Statements: 
No gentleman is poor.
All gentlemen are rich 
Conclusions
I. Mo poor man is rich
II. Mo rich man is poor

70 Statements:
Conclusions:
I. All heavy fishes are grey in colour
II. All light fishes are not grey in colour

71 The unit digit in the product of 453 x 424 x 82@ is 8 then the digit in place of @ can be?
a) 4 or 6
b) 4 or 9
c) 6 or 9
d) 6 or 7

72 The Sum of the greastest five digit number and the smallest four digit number is?
a) 1999000
b) 100999
c) 211000
d) 211999

73 Three men A, B and C subscribe Rs.4700 for a business. A subscribes Rs.700 more than B and B Rs.500 more than C. How much will C receive out of a profit of Rs.423?
a) Rs.135
b) Rs.198
c) Rs.90
d) Rs.190

74 The ages of Prasanth and Padma are in the ratio of 5:7. Sixteen years ago their ages were in the ratio of 3:5. Find the present age of Prasanth?
a) 30
b) 35
c) 40
d) 45

75 35% of a number is 105, what per cent of that number is 100.
a) 40%
b) 37 1/2%
c) 33 1/3%
d) 33 2/3%

76 There are 3 boys and 2 girls. In how many ways can they be seated in a row so that all the girls do not sit together?
a) 72
b) 42
c) 172
d) 190

77 Find the unit digit in the result of multiplication of 6798x 7689 x 5437 x 4566?
a) 8
b) 6
c) 5
d) 4

78 A reduction of 30 % in the price of tea enables a person to buy 3 kg more for Rs.20. Find the original price per kg of tea.
a) Rs 2 5/7
b) Rs. 2 6/7
c) Rs. 24/7
d) Rs. 35/7

79 If * stands for /,/ stands for -, + stands for * and – stands for + then which of the following is true?
a) 36/12*4+50-8=106
b) 12*8/4+50-8=45.5
c) 36*4/12+36-8=4.7
d) 8*36/4+50-8=300

Directions (for 80 and 81):
1. Six flats on a floor in two rows facing North and South are allotted to P, Q, R, S, T and U.
2. Q gets a north facing flat and is not next to S.
3. S and U get diagonally opposite flats.
4. R next to U, gets a south facing flat and T gets North facing flat.

80 If the flats of P and T are interchanged then whose flat will be next to that of U?
A. P
B. Q
C. R
D. T

81 Which of the following combination get south facing flats?
A. QTS
B. UPT
C. URP
D. Data is inadequate

Directions (for 82 and 84): Mr and Mrs Shah have two children Arti and Saurash. Saurash married Ritu, daughter of the Mehra. Shakti, son of Mrs. Mehra marries Reena. Subesh and Reshabh are born to Shakti and Reena. Mukti and Shruti are the daughters of Saurabh and Ritu.

82 How is Shakti related to Shruti?
a) brother
b) Maternal Uncle
c) Uncle
d) Cousin
e) None of these

83 What is Shruti’s relation to Arti?
a) Sister
b) Niece
c) Aunt
d) Daughter
e) None of these

84 How is Subash related to Mr Mehra?
a) Son-in-law
b) Grandson
c) Son
d) Nephew
e) None of these

85 2,6,12,20,30,42,56,(?)
a) 112
b) 90
c) 75
d) 72

86 In an objective examination of 90 questions, 5 marks are allotted for every correct answer and 2 marks are deducted for every wrong answer. After attempting all the 90 questions a students got a total of 387 marks. Find the number of questions that he attempted wrong?
a) 9
b) 10
c) 11
d) 12

87 Aman driving his bike at 24 kmph reaches his office 5 minutes late. Had he driven 25% faster, on an average he would have reached 4 minutes earlier than the scheduled time. How far is his office?
a) 24 km
b) 72 km
c) 18 km
d) Data Insufficient

88 A bus without stopping travels at an average speed of 60 km/hr and with stoppages at an average speed of 40 km/hr. What is the total time taken by the bus for stoppages on a route of length 300 km?
a) 4 hr
b) 3 hr
c) 2.5 hr
d) 3.5 hr

89 Find the number of triangles in the given figure.

a) 48
b) 44
c) 26
d) 46

90 If A and B work together, they will complete a job in 7.5 days. However, if A works alone and completes half the job and then B takes over and completes the remaining half alone, they will able to complete the job in 20 days. How long will B alone take to do the job if A is more efficient than B?
a) 20 days
b) 40 days
c) 36 days
d) 30 days

COMPREHENSION – I
It is true that cut-off marks and 101-odd entrance exams are needed to choose the best students. We, student, have not questioned this practice for the past 50-60 years. But this practice has only brought stress and anguish to the student community. Out of every three suicides reported every 15 minutes, one is committed by a student in the age group 15-29.

I am not an educationist or critic. I am just another average student who completed my Board exams this year. On the day of the results, my whole family exploded on learning that my cut-off was ‘only’ 171.50. My father said I would get a seat only in a nameless engineering college. During my school days, I was a good quizzer and won many inter-school and State-level competitions. Once I even made it to the regional level of the prestigious Young World quiz. My father was not particularly excited. He was as he was-Expressionless. It was a remarkable achievement to me but not so to him. As a student. I have felt all hazards of peer pressure and overweighing expectations. Every normal parent wants his or her children to become professionals-doctors and engineers and nothing else. This is simply awkward.

Every child has a dream. No parent asks a child what he or she wants to be. At birth, children are branded doctors and engineers. We, students, want to live our dreams and not our parents.’ The Delhi University had 100% as cut-off for admission. This is simply ridiculous. The next generation student should perhaps go to school with an IBM mainframe attached to his back and not a school bag. I was happy when Union Minister Kapil Sibal questioned this. The Hindi film, 3-idiots, clearly shows what the problem is and what is to be done.

I completed my Plus-2 in a reputed private school in Madurai. In my school, students were branded the brainy guys, the average and slow learners. Each category was given a different Question paper during each exam. We were relentlessly told that we were dumb cattle within the four walls of the classroom. No games, no library, nothing, Mug up, mug up. This is what we did.

We, students, want reforms. Whenever a change is made, the government asks parents and experts, and not students who are going to live with the syllabus. We demand our rights to live our lives. My school puts up top-scorer lists even for kindergarten. LKG and UKG students are given 500/500. What for? For reciting A-Z correctly? This is outrageous. Reforms are urgent and should be started immediately.

My dear fellow students,

Think of your lives. Stand up to your parents and say you want to live your lives. Fix your ambition. There are jobs beyond medicine and engineering. Make them understand that the world is big and everyone can live in it. If this is done, we will be the world leaders in science and technology. Think, learn and innovate.

91 Nameless engineering college means
a) A newly started college yet to be named
b) A name that is abusive to pronounce
c) A name that is not popular
d) The college is functioning secretly without a name

92 What does the author indicate when he/she says “next generation student should perhaps go to school with an IBM mainframe”
a) Mainframe will help the students be in their right frame of mind
b) Students can attain perfection with the help of it.
c) Education will become fully computerized in the next generation
d) Education system will demand more memorizing

93 According to the passage what is awkward?
a) Kindergarten students being given 500/500
b) 101 odd entrance exams to choose the best students
c) Education system demanding memorizing only.
d) Every parent expecting her child to be professionals like engineer and doctor

94 Dumb cattle means
a) Unable to speak
b) Unable to communicate
c) Cattle can’t speak like humans
d) Stupid

95 The author wrote this passage due to
a) Humiliation
b) excitement
c) sorrow
d) surprise

COMPREHENSION – II

However, despite the beliefs of these 17-21 million people, there is no evidence that accidents are more likely to happen on Friday the 13th. On the contrary, some studies have shown there are actually fewer accidents on Friday the 13th. A recent report completed by a Dutch insurance company showed that there were fewer incidents of fires and theft on Fridays that fell on the 13th than on any other Fridays in the same year. It is highly probale that this reduction in accidents owes itself to the fear of Friday the 13th itself. If people are more cautious on Friday the 13th, then there are likely to be fewer accidents.

If, then, there is no significant evidence that Friday the 13th is any more dangerous that any other day of the year, why do friggatriskaidekaphobics remain convinced of its unluckiness? While the historical or folk traditions dicussed earlier may have something to do with this belief, people may also use associational links to justify their superstitions. If a friggatriskaidekaphobic to as his wallet on Tuesday the 21st, for example, he would probably not assign any meaning to the date on which this event occurred. If the same individual lost his wallet on Friday the 13th, however, he might be likely to conclude that the inauspicious nature of Friday the 13th was at fault.

96 This passage is most likely an excerpt from 
a) the case study of a patient suffering from friggatriskaidekaphobia
b) the introduction to an article about friggatriskaidekaphobia
c) the introduction to a study about the likelihood of accidents occurring on Friday the 13th
d) the conclusion of a longer work that analyzes evidence about the superstition of Friday the 13th

97 Based on information in the passage, it can be inferred that an earlier section of this passage likely
1. featured a personal anecdote about why the author no longer believes that Friday the 13th is unlucky
2. provided some explanations about why people might fear Friday the 13th
3. introduced the term “friggatriskaidekaphobia
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 2 and 3 only

98 Which of the following pieces of evidence, if true, would best support the author’s argument in paragraph 1?
1. In ancient Egypt, the number 13 was actually considered lucky by the pharaohs.
2. Major airlines report that there is no significant drop in the number of passengers who fly on Friday the 13th.
3. Studies performed in the United Kingdom reveal that significantly fewer people choose to drive their cars to work on Friday the 13th
4. More traffic accidents occur on Fridays than on any other day of the week.
5. 50% fewer marriages occur on Friday the 13th than on other Fridays occurring in the same year.
a) 1,2,3
b) 2,4,5
c) 2 & 3
d) only 3

99 According to the example presented in paragraph 2, which of the following logical fallacies is committed by the man who loses his wallet and blames Friday the 13th?
1. Post hoc, characterized by the argument in which two sequential events are said to be causally related, but this is not actually the case; the arguer wrongly concludes that the earlier event cause the later. That is, correlation isn’t the same thing as causation.
2. Appeal to probability, characterized by the assumption that because an event could happen, it is inevitable that it will happen.
3. Appeal to ignorance, characterized by the supposition that, due to a lack of conclusive evidence, the conclusion of an argument should be accepted.
4. Hasty generalization, characterized by making assumptions about a whole group or range of cases based on a sample that is inadequate ( usually because it is atypical or too small).
a) only 1
b) only 2
c) only 3
d) only 4

100 As used in paragraph 2, which is the best antonym for inauspicious?
a) predictable
b) pleasant
c) fortunate
d) successful

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