Manidhaneyam Entrance Exam contains 100 questions. and awards 2 mars for each correct answers. There are no negative marks for any wrong answers. So If you are appearing for the entrance exam I would advise you to attend all the questions.
PART – A
1. Which of the following is not a fundamental right?
(a) Right against exploitation
(b) Equal pay for equal work
(c) Equality before law
(d) Right to freedom of religion
2. Match the following List I with List II and select the correct answers from code given below the list.
List I (passes)
A. Burzil La
B. Jelep La
C. Niti La
D. Shipki La
List II (states)
1. Himachal Pradesh
2. Jammu and Kashmir
3. Sikkim
4. Uttaranchal
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 1 4 3 2
3. In the parlance of financial investment, the term ‘bear’ denotes
(a) An investor who feels that the price of a particular security is going to fall
(b) An investor who expects that the price of a particular share to rise.
(c) A shareholder who has interest in a company financially or otherwise
(d) Any lendor, whether by making a loan or buying a bond.
4. Who among the following young man achieved martyrdom after 63 days long epic fast, demanding honourable and decent treatment in Jail.
(a) Pulin Das
(b) Jatin das
(c) Prafulla chaki
(d) Abdul Rashid
5. Identify the correct sequence of the given processes regarding rainfall:
(a) Unsaturated air, condensation, dew point, precipitation.
(b) Dew point, condensation, unsaturated air, precipitation.
(c) Unsaturated air, dew point, condensation, precipitation.
(d) Dew point, precipitation, condensation, unsaturated air.
Direction for Assertion Reason questions, there are two statements labeled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) If A is true but R is false
(d) If A is false but R is true
6. Assertion (A): All Fundamental Rights are justifiable as well as absolute
Reason (R): A person can move to the court in case of violation of their Fundamental Rights
7. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to Swami Vivekananda?
I. He was disciple of Ramkrishna Paramhansa.
II. He attended the ‘World Parliament of Religions’ at Chicago.
III. He rejected the supremacy of the Vedas
IV. He believed in the service of man in order to realize God.
Choose the correct code
(a) I and II only
(b) I, II and IV only
(c) I and III only
(d) II and IV only
8. Consider the following statements
1. One of the recommendations Simon Commission was to abolish Dyarchy system at centre and to provide autonomy.
2. The Nehru report was the first document that enunciates the Fundamental Rights of Indian people.
3. M. A. Jinnah’s Fourteen Points” was basically a reiteration of his objection to the M. k. Gandhi’s “Eleven Points”
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
9. Who among the following was instrumental in the formation of the first women’s university in India?
(a) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(b) Mrs. Ramabai
(c) D. K. Karve
(d) Mahadev Govind Ranade
10. India’s first Telegraph line was laid between
(a) Madras to Calcutta.
(b) Delhi to Calcutta.
(c) Calcutta to Diamond Harbour.
(d) Chittagong to Dhaka.
11. The Chief Justice of the high court is appointed by the,
(a) President of India in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the Governor of the concerned state/s
(b) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court in consultation with the president and concerned state/s Governor
(c) Governor of the concerned state/s in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
(d) Governor of the particular state/s in consultation with Chief Minister of particular state/s and Chief Justice of India.
12. Which of the following came to be known a MagnaCarta of English education in India?
(a) Raleigh commission
(b) Hunter commission
(c) Kothari commission
(d) Wood’s dispatch
13 Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. If a country is experiencing an increase in its per capita GDP, its GDP must necessarily be growing
2. If a country is experiencing negative inflation, its GDP must be decreasing.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
14. Soil erosion can be prevented by:
(a) Allowing herbivorous animals to graze freely
(b) Growing plants on a large scale to form soil cover
(c) Making the land sloppy
(d) Adding chemicals to increase soil cohesion
15. With respect to Temple Architecture in India, which among the following statement is/are correct?
1. The Garbhagriha in the nagara temple style, is always located directly under the tallest tower
2. The most common name for the simple shikara which is square at base and slope inward to a point on top in Nagara style is called ‘Latina’
3. Phamsana type of architectural form can be seen in vesara temple style.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) All of the above
(d) None of the above
16. Potassium is essential to all organisms because it is
1. An Important enzyme activator and plays an important role in nerve action and cardiac function
2. Required in the cell glucose metabolism and protein synthesis
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
17. The tricolor flag of Indian independence was first unfurled:
(a) At midnight on 31 December, 1929 on the banks of River Ravi
(b) All over the country on 26 January, 1930.
(c) On August 15, 1947 at Red Fort
(d) At midnight on January 26, 1929 on the banks of the Ravi
18. RBI’s credit control tool of CRR is applicable to which of the following
1. Scheduled Commercial Banks
2. Non-Banking Finance Companies
3. Insurance Companies
4. Debt Mutual Funds
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
19. Which of the following Fundamental Rights is also available to a foreigner on the soil of India?
(a) Equality of opportunity in the matter of public employment
(b) Freedoms of movement, residence and profession
(c) Protection from discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste or sex
(d) Protection of life and personal liberty against action without authority of law
20. Chhota Nagpur plateau is called the heart of industrial India because it is:
(a) Near to major iron and steel industries
(b) A big link of roads and railways connectivity
(c) Rich in minerals and power fuels resources.
(d) Very fertile for land for agricultural crops.
21. In which of the following cases labour force outnumber the workforce
1 Disguised unemployment
2. Open unemployment
3. Seasonal unemployment
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
22. Which of the following would not be illegal under the Endangered Species Act?
(a) Capturing a wild animal listed as a threatened species for exhibition in a zoo, provided the animal is well cared for
(b) Digging up an endangered plant in a public park and selling it
(c) Destroying the habitat of an endangered plant during the building of a federal highway
(d) Having a permit to capture and conduct research with endangered species.
23. Which one of the following is the correct chronologist order of the battle fought in the India in the 18th Century?
(a) Battle of Wandiwash – Battle of Buxar – Battle of Ambur – Battle of Plassey
(b) Battle of Ambur – Battle of Plassey – Battle of Wandiwash – Battle of Buxar
(c) Battle of Wandiwash – Battle of Plassey – Battle of Ambur – Battle of Buxar
(d) Battle of Ambur – Battle of Buxar – Battle of Wandiwash – Battle of Plassey
24. The executive power is vested in the President but it is actually used by him on the advice of:
(a) The Prime Minister
(b) The Council of Minister
(c) Parliament
(d) None of the above
25. Consider the following statements:
1. In the First Round Table Conference, Dr. Ambedkar demanded separate electorates for the depressed classes.
2. In the Poona Pact, special provisions for representation of the depressed people in the local bodies and civil services were made.
3. The Indian National Congress did not take part in the Third Round Table Conference.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
26. The polio virus enters the body through
(a) Mosquito bites
(b) Tick bites
(c) Contaminated food and water
(d) Saliva and secretion from the nose
27. Which one of the following is not the reason for generation and perpetration of inequalities of income and wealth in India?
(a) Skewed distribution of means of production
(b) Rural – urban divide
(c) Lower literary rate
(d) High population of India.
28. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) M.A. Jinnah’s ” Fourteen Points” was basically a reiteration of his objection to the Nehru Report.
(b) Subash Chandra Bose was a member of committee headed by Motilal Nehru to frame a constitution for India.
(c) The Nehru report accepted the principle of separate electorate system given to Muslims so as to bring muslim league with the congress.
(d) The congress didn’t completely accept the Nehru Report in the Calcutta session 1928.
Direction for Assertion Reason questions, there are two statements labeled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) If A is true but R is false
(d) If A is false but R is true
29. Assertion (A): India’s Population Dependency Ratio declined consistently since 1991.
Reason (R): Globalization provides more employment opportunities for larger part of Indian labour force, which in turn made them economically independent.
30. The difference between a nuclear reactor and an atomic bomb is that
(a) No chain reaction takes place in nuclear reactor while in the atomic bomb there is a chain reaction
(b) The chain reation in nuclear reactor is controlled
(c) The chain reaction in nuclear reactor is not controlled
(d) No chain reation takes place in atomic bomb while it takes place in nuclear reactor
31. Consider the following statements about Telangana State
1. Telangana is the first state in India to be carved out from a state with state language
2. Linguistic basis for the formation of states was first recommended by the JVP committee
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
32. In India, which type of forest among the following occupies the largest area?
(a) Montane Wet Temperate Forest
(b) Sub-tropical Dry Evergreen Forest
(c) Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest
(d) Tropical Wet Evergreen Forest
33. Regarding the ‘equality before law’ (Article 14) the Indian Constitution makes exception in the case of
1. The President
2. The Governors
3.Foreign Sovereigns (Rulers)
4. Foreign diplomats
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
34. Biological diversity increases as one proceeds from
(a) Low altitude to high altitude and from low latitude to high latitude
(b) High altitude to low altitude and from high latitude to low latitude
(c) Low altitude to high altitude and from high latitude to low latitude
(d) High altitude to low altitude and from low altitude to high altitude
35. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists.
List I (National Parks)
A. Pench
B. Rajaji
C. Keoladeo
D. Mandhav
List II (States)
1.Madhya Pradesh
2. Uttaranchal
3. Maharashtra
4. Rajasthan
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 1 2 3 4
36. The first woman Governor of a State in free India was
(a) Mrs. Sarojini Naidu
(b) Mrs. Sucheta Kripalani
(c) Mrs. Indira Gandhi
(d) Mrs. Vijaya Laxmi Pandit
37. Gandhi distinguished his technique of Sathyagraha from the extremist method of ‘passive resistance’. Which of the following is/are not true about such distinction?
1.Passive resistance is an act of expediency, while Sathyagraha is a moral weapon based on the superiority of the soul-force over physical force
2. The former is the weapon of the weak, but the latter is that of the bravest
3. The former is static, but the latter is dynamic
4. The former is negative in approach, but the latter is positive in approach
5. The former aims at wearing the opponent away from the error by love and patient suffering, while the latter aims at embarrassing the opponent into submission
Select the answer from the codes given below:
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 5 only
(c) 2 and 5 only
(d) 2 only
38. The President nominates 12 members of the Rajya Sabha according to:
(a) Their performance as office bearers of cultural societies
(b) Their role played in political set up of the country
(c) The recommendations made by the Vice – President
(d) Their distinction in the field of science, art, literature and social service
39. Railway tracks are banked on curves
(a) Necessary centrifugal force may be obtained from the horizontal component weight of the train
(b) To avoid frictional force between the tracks and wheels
(c) Necessary centripetal force may be obtained from the horizontal component of the weight of the train
(d) The train may not fly off in the opposite direction
40. Match the following List I with List II and select the correct answer from the code given below the list.
List – I (Article)
A. Reservation in promotion for the SC and STs
B. Special recruitment drive to fill Backlog vacancies for Scs and STs.
C. Reservation of OBC in central educational institutions
D. Right to education
List – II (Amendment)
1. 81st Amendment Act, 2000
2. 86th Amendment Act, 2002
3. 77th Amendment Act, 1995
4. 93rd Amendment Act, 2005
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 3 1 4 2
41. Governance and Accelerated Livelihood Security (GOALS) programme which aims at strengthening the effectiveness of governance and livelihood promotion in Naxal – affected areas is implemented by
(a) Ministry of Social justice and Empowerment and UNDP
(b) Ministry of Rural Development and UNDP
(c) Home Ministry and World Bank
(d) Ministry of Rural Development and World Bank
42. The term ‘democratic’ used in the Preamble implies
(a) That the government is carried on by the elected representatives of the people
(b) That all power emanates from the people and the government is accountable to the people through their representatives
(c) A system of universal adult franchise and periodical elections
(d) all of the above
43. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists.
List I List II
(Grasslands) (Region)
A. Downs 1. South africa
B. Prairies 2. Australia
C. Pampas 3. North America
D. Pampas 4. South America
5. Asia
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 5
(b) 2 3 4 5
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 2 3 4 1
44. During the monsoon season rainfall decreases from the Ganga delta to the Punjab plains. It is because:
(a) Monsoon current moves westward along the Ganga plain and becomes drier
(b) Western regions are warmer than the eastern region
(c) Hills do not form barriers for winds
(d) The area is far away from the sea
45. The main purpose of the Round Table Conference in 1930 – 32 was to:
(a) Get all the parties to agree ta a constitution for India
(b) Discuss the report of the Simon Commission
(c) Discuss ways and means of reducing communal disagreements
(d) Discuss all the above
46. Which of the following statements are correct about Narasimhavarman I?
1. He was probably the greatest Pallava ruler and became supreme in the whole of south India.
2. He defeated Pulikesin II in three battles, killed the latter and captured Vatapi.
3. He withdrew the forces from the Chalukyan territories after his victory over Pulikesin II
4. He sent a naval expedition to Ceylon, the details of which are given in the Mahavamsa
5. Hiuen Tsung visited the Pallava kingdom during his reign
Select the answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 5
(d) All the above
47. The name of the famous person of India who returned the Knighthood conferred on him by the British Government as a token of protest against the atrocities in Punjab in 1919 was:
(a) Tej Bahadu Sapru
(b) Ashutosh Mukherjee
(c) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(d) Syed Ahmed Khan
48. Rising prices lead to all but one of the following
(a) Promotional inequalities
(b) Generation of black money
(c) adverse effect on BOP
(d) adverse effect on speculation
49. It is more difficult to walk on a sandy road than on a concrete road because
(a) Sand is soft and concrete is hard
(b) The friction between sand and feet is less than that between concrete and feet
(c) The friction between sand and feet is more than that between concrete and feet
(d) The sand is grainy but concrete is smooth
50. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists.
List I List II
(Names) (Regions)
A. Hurricanes 1. Indian Ocean
B. Typhoons 2. Caribbean Sea
C. Willy Willy 3. North-west Australia
D. Cyclone 4. China Sea
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 3 1 2 4
51. “Our system acts very much like a sponge, drawing up all the good things from the banks of the Ganges and squeezing them down on the banks of the Thames”, what this statement implies
(a) British Expansion
(b) Drain of Wealth
(c) Transport system
(d) Land Revenue Policy
52. ‘Balanced Growth’ means:
(a) Growth which brings about a balance between the rich and the poor
(b) Growth which brings about a balance between the public and private sectors
(c) Growth which brings about a balance between the traditional and modern sector
(d) Growth pattern on which simultaneous investments are made in all the sectors of the economy, viz., Agriculture, Communication, etc.,
53. Which one of the following is not a feature of Gandhara style of Buddha image?
(a) In seated position, they are always shown cross legged
(b) The ears are shown elongated
(c) They are never shown with the shaved head
(d) They are always shown in Abhaya mudra.
54. Which among the following programmes were parts of non-cooperation movement?
1. To give up untouchability
2. Non payment of taxes
3. Resignation from Government services
4. To boycott the election
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
55. Who said “one religion, one caste and one god for mankind”?
(a) Sri Narayan Guru
(b) Ramaswamy Naicker
(c) Jotiba Phule
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
56. Match the following and choose the correct code:
List – I Wild Life park / sanctuary
A. Kaziranga
B. ranthambhore
C. Gir
D. Periyar
List – II Animal protected
1. Elephant
2. Lion
3.Rhinoceros
4.Tiger
Choose the correct code:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 1 4 2 3
(d) 3 4 2 1
57. “At the stroke of midnight, when the world sleeps, India will awake to life and freedom” was said by:
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Lord Mountbatten
(c) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) None of the above
58. Bank rate is the rate at which:
(a) A bank lends to the public
(b) The Reserve Bank of India lends to the public
(c) The Government of India lends to other countries
(d) The Reserve Bank of India gives credit to commercial banks
59. Which type of taxation is followed in India
(a) Regressive
(b) Progressive
(c) Proportional
(d) None of the above
60. The technique used to transmit audio signals in television broadcasts is
(a) Amplitude modulation
(b) Pulse code modulation
(c) Frequency modulation
(d) Time division multiplexing
PART – B
Directions (Q. 61-63): Study the diagram given below and answer each of the following questions.
61. How many persons take tea and lemonade but not coffee?
(a) 20
(b) 17
(c) 25
(d) 15
62. How many persons are there who take both tea and coffee but not lemonade?
(a) 22
(b) 17
(c) 7
(d) 20
63. How many persons are there who takes only coffee?
(a) 90
(b) 45
(c) 25
(d) 20
Directions (Q 64-66):
There are six members of a family a, B, C, D, E and F
I. A and B are married couple
II. A is a male member
III. D is the only son of C who is brother of A
IV. E is the sis of D
V. B is the daughter in law of F, whose husband has died
64. How is F related to C?
(a) Mother
(b) Sister-in-law
(c) Sister
(d) Mother-in-law
65. How is E related to C?
(a) Sister
(b) Daughter
(c) Cousin
(d) Aunt
66. How many male members are there in the family?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Directions for questions from 67 to 71:
Read the following passage and answer the items that follow.
Passage – I
The Great wall of China is said to be the one structure built by man on earth which would be visible to observes on the moon. It covers a distance of 1,500 miles as the crow flies. from the Liotung Peninsula westward to the last fortress in Central Asia it crosses the northern provinces of China. But its actual Course, twisting and turning, sweeping across deep valleys, covers over 2,000 miles.
In the eastern section its height varies from 15 to 13 feet, and its width from about 25 feet all the bottom to 15 feet at the top, where there is a pathway wide enough for six horsemen to ride side by side it had about 25,000 towers, each 40 feet square and 40 feet high projecting from it every few hundred yards with holes from which the defenders could shoot at attackers Thousand of these towers are still standing. There are also many watch towers on the enemy side outside the wall on hilltops or passes. These and the towers of the wall were used fire by night. The approach of invaders could be reported at one, and reinforcements sent to any part of the frontier.
The great Emperor Shih Huang Ti joined three earlier frontier walls to form a Great wall which was to act as a boundary between China and the north, and keep out the feared nomads of the Mongolian steppes. The wall was designed to strengthen the nation’s defences; it was not then, as it later became in Ming times, a substitute for a strong army and State.
67. By the phrase ‘as the crow flies’ the author wants to mean:
(a) In a winding manner
(b) In a circular manner
(c) In a zig zag manner
(d) In a straight line
68. The Great Wall of China covers a distance:
(a) Of 2000 miles across the northern Provinces of China
(b) from the Liotung Peninsula westward to the last fortress in Central Asia.
(c) Of 1500 miles.
(d) Of 2000 miles through the deep valleys in Northern provinces of China.
69. The word ‘parapet’ means:
(a) Forts for defending enemies
(b) Towers for defending enemies
(c) Protective wall along the edge of the pathway
(d) fissures on the wall to keep the cannons and guns.
70. The 25,000 towers of the Great Wall:
(a) Are all intact
(b) Some of them are inact
(c) Are all destroyed
(d) Are all refurbished
71. The steppes are:
(a) Dense forest
(b) Unforested deep valley
(c) Deserted land with extreme climate
(d) Unforested plain Greenland
72. The least number of four digits which is divisible by each one of the numbers 12, 18, 21 and 28 is _______?
(a) 1008
(b) 1006
(c) 1090
(d) 1080
73. Ninety consecutive even numbers are written with equal spacing around a circle. If the least of them is 4, which number is opposite to 60?
(a) 150
(b) 144
(c) 146
(d) 148
Directions for questions from 74 to 78:
Read the following passage and answer the items that follow.
PASSAGE – II
The Equator is an imaginary line round the middle of the earth. It divides the earth into two roughly equal parts. The areas close to the Equator are hotter than those that are farther away. The coldest regions in the world are the Polar Regions near the North and South poles. They have an arctic climate. The hottest regions are in South Asia, North Africa and Central America. They are in the Tropics. Their climate is tropical. The countries between the polar and tropical regions have a temperature climate. This is the climate of Europe.The average temperature there is warmer than at the Poles and cooler than that of the tropics. The plant growth in a particular region is called vegetation. The vegetation of an area depends its climate. In wet, tropical regions, for instance, jungles are the commonest vegetation. In these jungles the tops of the trees are large, and meet overhead. Underneath there are smaller trees. the forests in the temperate regions are different. They do not have the thick undergrowth that is found in the tropical jungles. These forests, therefore, are more open than the jungles.
The deserts are the driest areas. They have very little vegetation at all. The regions farthest north and south of the Equator are regions with ice, snow and frost all the year round. Here too, There is little or no vegetation. Man’s most important interest in vegetation arises from his need for food. Different kinds of crops are grown in different climates. Crops such as rice and maize need more water than crops like wheat and rye. Rice must have a warm moist climate during the growing season. Wheat, oats, rye and barley are called small grains. They do not need so much water as rice and maize do. Wheat is the most widely grown small grain. It is perhaps the most important edible crop of all. The most important inedible crop grown by man is cotton.
Man grows many kinds of crops. With the scientific knowledge of farming that he possesses nowadays he can grow some kind of crop even in climates where formerly they could not be grown. Man cannot change climate but he can make most of it.
74. Equator has divided earth:
(a) Into two equal parts
(b) Into approximately two equal parts
(c) Into two exactly equal parts
(d) Into two halves
75. Europe is;
(a) Closer to equator than south pole
(b) Not closer to equator than north pole
(c) Closer to equator than tropical zone.
(d) Closest to equator
76. The density of jungle depends upon;
(a) The country
(b) The forestry
(c) The weather
(d) The position of equator
77. The word ‘inedible’ means that;
(a) Which needs much water to grow
(b) Which does not need much water to grow
(c) Which is eatable
(d) Which needs alluvial soil to grow
78. the production of crops in varied climates, breaking the natural rule, is increased due to:
(a) Irrigation
(b) tilling of land
(c) Genetically developed seeds
(d) Evolution of crops
79. In a class of 60 children, 30% children can speak only English, 20% Hindi and English both and the rest of the children can speak only Hindi. How many children can speak Hindi?
(a) 42
(b) 36
(c) 30
(d) 48
80. a, b, c and d are positive numbers, such that 20%a =30%b = 50%c = d. Which of the following is the smallest?
(a) 4a
(b) 5b
(c) 8c
(d) 3d
81. A trader, by mistake, calculates his profit on the selling price and expresses it as 20%. What is the correct figure of his profit?
(a) 22%
(b) 25%
(c) 22 1/4%
(d) 23 1/2%
82. A king had a certain number of gold coins with him. He decided to give these coins to his ministers in the following manner. To the first minister, he gave two more than half the total number of coins. To the second minister he gave two more than half the remaining number of coins. Next, to the third minister he gave two more than half the remaining number of coins. After that, he once again gave six more than half the remaining number to the first minister and then he was left with no coins. Find the total number of coins received by the first minister.
(a) 60
(b) 64
(c) 76
(d) 124
83. A father divided his property among 3 sons such that his first got 3/4 of what the second son got and the second son got 2/5 of what the third son got. In what ratio did the father divide his property?
(a) 3 : 4 : 7
(b) 3 : 4 : 10
(c) 4 : 5 : 8
(d) 4 : 12 : 5
84. If a clock shows 4 hours 12 minutes, what time does its mirror image show?
(a) 8 hours, 12 minutes
(b) 7 hours 58 minutes
(c) 7 hours 48 minutes
(d) 8 hours 48 minutes
85. There are 50 boxes and 50 persons, person 1 keeps 1 marble in every box. Person 2 keeps 2 marbles in every 2nd box. Person 3 keeps 3 marbles in every 3rd box. This process goes on till person 50 keeps 50 marbles in the 50th box. Find the total number of marbles kept in the 50th box.
(a) 6
(b) 93
(c) 78
(d) 43
86. How many four digit even numbers can be formed using the digits 1, 2, 3, 5, 6 and 9 when no digit can occur more than once in any number?
(a) 120
(b) 240
(c) 60
(d) 480
87. In a certain code language, if the word CATARACT is coded as UDBSBUBD, then how is the word DOUBLOON code in that language?(a) OPPMCVPE
(b) OPPNCVPE
(c) OPPMCUPE
(d) OPPMCVPF
88. The ages of A, B and C together total 185 years. B is twice as old as A and C is 17 years older than A. Then the respective ages A, B and C are
(a) 40, 86 and 59 years
(b) 42, 84 and 59 years
(c) 40, 80 and 65 years
(d) None of these
89. A monkey climbing up a greased pole, ascends 10 m and slips down 3 m in alternate minutes. If the pole is 63 m high, how long will it take him to reach the top?
(a) 16 min 42 sec
(b) 16 min 40 sec
(c) 18 min 42 sec
(d) None of these
90. A train leaves Delhi at 5 am and reaches Kanpur at 10 am. Another train leaves Kanpur at 7 am and reaches Delhi at 2 pm. At what time do the two trains meet?
(a) 8.45 am
(b) 3.45 am
(c) 6.45 am
(d) Data inadequate
Direction (Q 91-94):
In each of the questions below are given tree statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow (s) from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
91. Statements:
(A) Some apples are fruits
(B) All Vegetables are fruits
(C) All fruits are vegetables.
Conclusions:
I. Some apples are vegetables
II. All vegetables are fruits
III. All fruits are apples
IV. All vegetables are apples.
(a) Only I and II follow.
(b) Only II follows.
(c) Only I and IV follow
(d) None of these
92. Statements:
(A) Some cars are four wheelers
(B) All four wheelers are vehicles.
(C) Some vehicles are SUVs
Conclusions :
I. Some SUVs are four wheelers
II. Some vehicles are four wheelers
III. Some vehicles are cars.
IV. Some SUVs are cars.
(a) All follow
(b) Only II & III follow
(c) Only III follow
(d) None of these
93. Statements:
(A) Most architects are writers
(B) No writer is a driver
(C) All drivers are architects
Conclusions:
I. Some writers are architects
II. All architects are drivers
III. No driver is a writer
IV. Some drivers are writers
(a) Only I follow
(b) Only II and III follows
(c) Only I and III follow
(d) None of these.
94. Statements:
(A) All registers are books
(B) All books are written materials.
(C) All written materials are novels.
Conclusions:
I. All books are novels
II. All written materials are registers.
III. All registers are novels
IV. All novels are books
(a) Only I and II follow
(b) Only II and III follow
(c) Only I and III follow
(d) All follow
Directions for questions from 95 to 100: Read the following passage and answer the items that follow.
PASSAGE — III
Less than an hour’s drive from the boom town of Baroda, Gujarat’s so-called cultural capital, are situated a majority of the resettlement sites of the Sardar Sarovar Project on the Narmada. Oustees from Gujarat’s 19 submergence villages, and those displaced from Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh are resettled at these sites. The inhabitants at these sites, especially the Gujarat oustees, were promised alternative benefits under the Gujarat government’s Resettlement and Rehabilitation (R and R) policy; and in.–persuading these oustees to shift from their ancestral homes near the Narmada, notfa. small part was played by two of the prominent. NGOs of Gujarat. But now it is increasingly becoming clear that these oustees were resettled, relocated and dumped but not rehabilitated. Over the last few years, there has been a trickle of oustees going back to their original villages from the resettlement sites,’, disillusioned and disenchanted with the lack of facilitates to carry on their lives.
This summer the trickle threatens to be a steady stream. In May 1995 about eight families from Malu resettlement site returned to Gadher, a declared submergence site. Then on June 8, 1995 a total of 22 families (numbering 114 persons in all) returned from Malu to Gadher. About the same time, 34 families from Karmaliyapura resettlement site have gone back to Suka, Vagrali and Kareli villages near their old village of Panchmoli which is now dyke- filled. In village Mukhdi, there are now two families back from Ambawadi resettlement site. For these returning from Malu on June 8-9 the event was marked by a show of strength by the government. These 22 families had hired six trucks, at anything between Rs 800 to 1, 600 per truck per day, had dumped all their household goods in the trucks and were about to leave.
The trucks with the goods of those waiting to return to Gadher were seized and not allowed to leave Malu resettlement site. Police and the resettlement authorities saw to that. There were arguments and alterations. The oustees decided to walk all the way back to their original village of Gadher without their household goods. When we met them on June 24 at Gadher, they had built two makeshift houses covered with tarpaulin and leaves of teak trees. Their goods were still impounded at Malu and life at Gadher was being carried on with vessels, clothing and grins borrowed from nearby villages. Later in the day we met about 40 oustee representatives from Ambawadi, Piparvati, Loytiya, Parsa and other resettlement sites. All of them felt they had come to the end of their tether and would like to return to their original villages. in almost all cases, oustees said they want to return to their original villages for one or more of the following reasons the allotted land at the new site was barren, fallow, disputed, fragmented and/or encumbered.
The water was brackish saline and unsuitable for humans, cattle and irrigation; and inadequate or no water sources for cultivation in non-monsoon months. Other aggravating factors have included hostility of nearby villages; living day and night in inhospitable tin sheds; lack of grazing and fodder facilities for cattle; water logging, poor yields from land; lack of safety for women; cultural alienation; difficulties in making a transition for a relatively non-monetised economy to a market economy. Many of the oustees at Malu, Ambawadi, Piparvati and other sites frequently had to do wage labour (‘majoori’) to supplement their livelihood. This was in marked contrast to working on one’s own land in their original villages where they felt their lives were far more self-reliant and self-sufficient.
During March a People’s Union for Civil Liberation (PUCL) team from Baroda visited resettlement sites in Baroda, Panchmahals and Bharuch district. The team found oustees from Madhya Pradesh from the following resettlement sites had returned en masse, in many cases entire sites were vacant (but for the watchmen on government payroll); Rajnagar, Jaipura, Koba, Kachota, Miyagam, Bakrol, Lotana.
The report of the committee of MLAs of Madhya Pradesh under the chairmanship of Singhdeo, which visited the sites earlier (December last), also backed Madhya Pradesh because of inhuman/inhospitable conditions at the resettlements sites. One unofficial estimate puts the figure at 328 families as having returned to Madhya Pradesh out of the 1, 044 families that had come to Gujarat, (official figures of course paint a rosy picture. It should also be mentioned here that ultimately 50 percent of the 33, 014 affected families from Madhya Pradesh are expected to settle in Gujarat).
95. In and around Baroda, are the settlers from
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Gujarat
(c) Maharashtra
(d) All the above
96. The passage suggests that
(a) Rehabilitated people are facing major problems
(b) Most of the resettled people are going back to their villages
(c) The rehabilitation & resettlement policy is faulty
(d) All the above
97. The displaced, people were motivated to resettlement by
(a) NGO’s working in the area
(b) By government of Maharashtra’s offer of employment
(c) Financial inducements
(d) All the above
98. The rehabilitated people are going back because
(a) There are no facilities available for them
(b) They had no place to live
(c) The land given was too small
(d) They liked their ancestral hornes.
99. The later part of the passage mainly deals with
1. Problems at resettlements sites
2. Statistics regarding return of the displaced
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
100. One of the following has not been listed as the problems faced by settlers?
(a) Lack of grazing land
(b) Lack of school facilites
(c) Poor yield from land
(d) Lack of safety
Download Manidhaneyam IAS Academy Entrance Exam Question Paper 2014
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