June 8, 2019 – 9 AM to 12 PM Exam Batch.
Marks: 100
Questions: 100
Time: 2 Hours
Negative Marks: Nil
Difficulty Level: Difficult.
1) Identify the incorrect statements
A) Under the �Lead Bank Scheme�, �head districts� are headed by state Bank by Indian group its Nationalized banks and 3 private banks.
B) The interest rate on kisan credit scheme is higher than the GOP loans and security/margin norms.
C) The present system of the note issue is known as �Minimum Reserve System�.
D) The extrinsic value (face value) of the nickel win is greater than its intrinsic (actual) value
2) Consider the following statements regarding RBI
A) It was set up based on the recommendation of Hilton young commission
B) The RBI Act, 1934 (I of 1934) provides the stator basis of the functioning of the bank
C) It continued to save as the central bank of Burma upto April 1947.
D) It served as the central bank of Pakistan upto June 1948.
3) Deficit financing means the government borrows money from the,
A) IMF
B) Ministry of Finance
C) RBI
D) WTO
4) Money in India consists of,
A) Paper currency
B) Current account
C) Metallic coins
D) Both a and c
5) Which of the following is not a function of the central bank
A) Control of Credit
B) Monetary Authority
C) Issue of bank notes
D) Raise profit for the share holders
6) Which of the following is not a measure of the welfare of the people?
A) Genuine Progress Indicator
B) Green Gross Domestic product
C) Gross National Happiness
D) Sustainable National Income
7) Which among the following is an innovation in the fiscal management that bring more transparency in the Governments expenditure behavior?
A) Revenue deficit
B) Primary deficit
C) Fiscal deficit
D) Monetized deficit
8) The book Poverty & Un British Rule in India was written by
A) V.K.R.V. Rao
B) Dadabhai Naoroji
C) P.C. Mahalanobis
D) D.R. Gadgil
9) How many scheduled commercial banks were initially nationalized in 1969
A) 20
B) 6
C) 19
D) 14
10) Which among the following situation indicates the government spending beyond its means?
A) Fiscal deficit
B) Borrowing by the Government
C) Primary Deficit
D) Monetized Deficit
11) Identify the autonomous training Establishment
A) National Institute for Bank management
B) College of agricultural banking
C) Bankers Training college
D) BI Staff College.
12) Identify the incorrect statement regarding GNP
A) It avoids double counting by considering the money value of final goods & services
B) It is the basic measure of a nation�s output.
C) It refers to the net production of goods and services in a country
D) It is evaluated in terms of market prices
13) Identify the incorrect statement with respect to Budget
A) It is an estimate of available resources compared with past periods
B) It is a statement of revenue earned & expenses incurred by the Government
C) It is an estimate of resources required
D) It is an outlay of the government pertaining to taxation, public expenditure & public debt.
14) Identify the components of GDP
1. Consumer expenditure
2. Government expenditure
3. Business expenditure
4. Business investments
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 3 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) All the above
15) Which is incorrect for the 10th Five year Plan
A) It aimed 8% GDP growth rate
B) Cleaning of all major polluted rivers
C) Universal access to primary education
D) Increasing energy efficiency by 20%.
16) Consider the following statements:
1. Avogadro law states that under the same conditions of temperature and pressure, equal volumes of all gases contain the same number of molecules
2. Dalton’s Law states that the total pressure of a mixture of non-reacting gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the individual gases
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
17) Which of the following are different isotopes of Hydrogen?
A) Protium
B) Deuterim
C) Tritium
D) All the above
18) Which of the following is the first antibiotic?
A) Penicillin
B) Aspirin
C) Ether
D) Insulin
19) The decolorizer used in sugar refining is
A) Boneblack
B) chlorine water
C) Hydrogen peroxide
D) sulphur dioxide
20) Common salt is obtained from seawater by the process of
A) sublimation
B) evaporation
C) crystallisation
D) filtration
21) The gas used for artificial ripening of green fruit is
A) Ethylene
B) Ethane
C) Co2
D) Acetylene
22) The Central Drug Research Institute is located in
A) Allahabad
B) Delhi
C) Lucknow
D) Bangalore
23) Carborundumisa compound of
A) Ca
B) Ge
C) Si
D) S
24) Half life of radioactive substance is 60min; during 3hrs, the fraction of total no.of atoms that would have decayed would be
A) 12.50%
B) 25%
C) 8.50%
D) 87.50%
25) Consider the following statements:
1. All halogens are coloured
2. All halogens are reactive
3. Halogens form ionic compounds only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 2 only
26) Consider the following statements:
1. L Dopa is a drug used to cure Parkinsons disease
2. Taxol is a potent anti cancer
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
27) Which drug is nicknamed as wonder drug?
A) Aspirin
B) Penicillin
C) Glycohon
D) Glycogen
28) Gasoline (petrol), diesel, kerosene are obtained from crude oil by the process of
A) evaporation
B) fractional distillation
C) distillation
D) filtration
29) The kinetic energy of the molecules increases with
A) Increase in temperature
B) decrease in temperature
C) decrease in temperature
D) decrease in pressure
30) Consider the following statements regarding aspirin:
1. It was the first drug used as an analgesic
2. It was used to relieve minor aches and pains
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
31) If a court finds that a Law gives effect to the Directive principle
it is considered reasonable in relation to
A) Article 15 and 16
B) Article 14 and 19
C) Article 32
D) Article 20 and 21
32) Consider the following statements:
1. Constitution of India envisages a dual polity but a single citizenship
2. Articles 371-A and 371-I were inserted in the constitution of India to meet regional demands
3. A naturalized citizen of India can never be deprived of his citizenship
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 only
C) 1, 2 and 3
D) 1 and 3 only
33) The governor general of India designation was changed to Viceroy of India by
A) Government of India act 1858
B) Indian Councils act 1861
C) Minto Morley reforms 1909
D) Indian councils act 1863
34) Which of the following are legal rights outside fundamental rights?
1. Article 265
2. Article 300-A
3. Article 301
4. Article 326
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
A) 1, 2 and 4 only
B) 2 only
C) 2, 3 and 4 only
D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
35) The major portion of the Indian Constitution was borrowed from
A) Government of India act 1919
B) Government of India act 1935
C) Government of India act 1847
D) Independence of India Act 1947
36) The minimum age to vote was decreased from 21 to 18 by
A) 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956
B) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976
C) 61st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1988
D) 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992
37) A special system of administration for scheduled and tribal areas are mentioned in
A) Article 244
B) Article 245
C) Article 246
D) Article 247
38) Consider the following statements:-
1. The constituent assembly was a fully elected body.
2. Its members were directly elected by members of provincial assemblies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
39) From which Article to which Articles deal with the administration of UTs
A) 239 to 241
B) 243 A to 243O
C) 243P to 243Z
D) 246 to 256
40) According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar which is the novel feature of Indian Constitution
A) Fundamental Duties
B) Fundamental Rights
C) Directive principles
D) Preamble
41) Lieutenant Governor of UTs acts as agent of
A) President
B) Union Government
C) Parliament
D) Prime Minister
42) The Supreme Court held that the preamble is a part of the constitution in
A) Berubari Unions Case (1960)
B) Kesavananda Bharathi Case (1973)
C) K. Gopalan Case (1950)
D) Menaka Gandhi Case (1978)
43) The doctrine of Basic Structure was first propounded by Supreme Court in which of the following cases?
A) Golaknath Vs State of Punjab
B) Keshavanand Vs State of Kerala
C) Menaka Vs Union of India
D) Gopalan Vs State of Madras
44) Indian Constitution consists of
A) 24 parts and 12 schedules
B) 25 parts and 11 schedules
C) 25 parts and 12 schedules
D) 24 parts and 11 schedules
45) Consider the following statements:
1. The restrictions to the fundamental rights are not mentioned in the Constitution and are prescribed by the Parliament from time to time.
2. The reasonableness of the restrictions imposed on the fundamental rights is outside the purview of judicial review.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
46) Consider the following statements:
1. Temperature and pressure from depth is used to know about interior of earth
2. A depressed area at top of a volcano sometimes becomes a lake
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
47) Consider the following statements
1. The tope of such peaks is eroded through the wave action to mate form almost flat-trapped peaks are called guyots.
2. The pacific ocean is specially known for guyots.
3. Some of the ridges on the ocean floor may be a result of folding activity also.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
A) 2 and 3 only
B) 1 only
C) 1 only
D) All the above
48) When molten rock material reaches the earth’s surface it is called
A) Magma
B) Lava
C) Caldera
D) Fine ash
49) Ozone gas was found in which atmospheric layer?
A) Troposphere
B) Mesophere
C) Stratosphere
D) None of these.
50) In India, in which one of the following types of forests, is teak a dominant tree species?
A) Tropical moist deciduous forest
B) Tropical rain forest
C) Tropical thorn forest
D) Temperate forest with grasslands
51) Which of the following factors are not affecting ocean salinity?
A) Evaporation
B) Precipitation
C) Wind Transfer water
D) Kinetic energy
52) The Zonal soil type of Peninsular India belongs to,
A) Red Soils
B) Yellow Soils
C) Black Soils
D) Older Aluvium
53) Consider the following statements
1. Pacific ocean is the largest and deepest among all oceans.
2. Pacific covers one third of the total area of globe.
3. Tonga trench is occered in Atleachelic Ocean
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
A) 1 and 2
B) 3 only
C) All the above
D) None of these
54) Which one of the following countries of South-West Asia does not open out to the Mediterranean Sea?
A) Syria
B) Jordan
C) Lebanon
D) Israel
55) Which of the following is geographically closest to the Great Nicobar?
A) Sumatra
B) Borneo
C) Java
D) Sri Lanka
56) Indian government has accepted the meridian of
A) 53.5°N
B) 82.5°N
C) 53.5°E
D) 82.5°E
57) Consider the following statements:
1. Physical weathering is more potent in hot deserts only
2. The characteristic of tundra soil is stony texture
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
58) Consider the following statements and find the incorrect statements:
A) Winter solstice occur on 22nd December in Northern hemisphere
B) Deep ocean drilling help in knowing the structure of interior of earth
C) L waves originate only on the surface of earth
D) Active volcanic mountain is not present in India
59) Which is not the pressure belt among the following answers
A) Subtropical High pressure belt (Northern)
B) Subtropical High pressure belt (Southern)
C) Equatorial through of low pressure
D) Equatorial through of low pressure (South)
60) Consider the following statements regarding favorable conditions for forming cyclone.
1. In high latitudes areas the salinity tends to increase with increasing depth in the areas of low surface salinity.
2. In equatorial regions, the salinity has a tendency of slight increase with decreasing depth.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
61) Aryabatta was an outstanding scholar of the
A) Mauryan Age
B) Gupta Age
C) Harsha Age
D) None of the above
62) Point out the incorrect statement in the following:-
A) The trade of Harappan civilization done in the parts of Lothal.
B) Harrappan civilization cities are based on the grid pattern.
C) There was clear distinction in kalibangan between a citadel and a separate lower town.
D) Burnt bricks were not used in Harappan civilization.
63) Which is incorrect in given statements?
A) Uttarapath � North Province
B) Prachya � Eastern province
C) Avantipath � South Province
D) Padaliputra � Central Province
64) Consider the following statements:
1. Gandara Art, Molding human body with realistic physical features.
2. Matura art, Buddha images exhibit the spiritualism.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
A) Both 1 and 2
B) 1 only
C) 2 only
D) Neither 1 nor 2
65) Consider the following statements:-
1. The nomadic people began to lead a settled agricultural life in the Pre Harappan age and wheat was first cultivated in Mehrgarh.
2. The four stages of the Indus civilization are clearly found at amri.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
66) Which Mandala or Books were added later?
A) Books II and III
B) Books I and X
C) Books I and IX
D) Books I and III
67) Aihole inscription was composed by
A) Virasena
B) Saravasena
C) Ravikirthi
D) Harisenena
68) Consider the following statements:
1. Black and red pottery, Iron artifacts such as hoes and sickles found in burial bits in Mesolithic age.
2. The Iron age follows the chalcolithic was also vedic age.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) Both 1 and 2
C) 2 only
D) None of these
69) Which of the following rivers run from east to west?
A) Krishna and Tapti
B) Krishna and Narmada
C) Narmada and taptI
D) Krishna and Godavari
70) Which were not Harappan civilization sites?
A) Changudaro, Kalibangan, lothal, Surkotada
B) Kalibangan, Lothal, Surkotada, Mohenjo-daro
C) Surkotada, Kalibanga, Ujjain, padaliputra.
D) Banawali, Dholvira, Harappa, Lotha
71) Consider the following statements:
1. Nanaghat and Kanheri inscriptions mention that the maharathis had matrimonial relations with the ruling family.
2. The empire divided into jana-pada and Aharas.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
A) Both 1 and 2
B) 1 only
C) Neither 1 nor 2
D) 2 only
72) Nalanda University was founded by
A) Skanda Gupta
B) Kumara Gupta I
C) Chandra Gupta II
D) Chandra Gupta I
73) Chinese traveler Fa-hien visited India during the period of
A) Harshavardana
B) Gupta
C) Mauryan Empire
D) Satavahanas
74) Which is correct order?
A) Kula, Grama, Vis, Jana
B) Grama, Kula, Jana, Vis
C) Jana, Kula, Vis, Grama
D) Vis, Jan, Kula, Grama
75) Period of Gauthama Buddha
A) 543 � 483 B.C.
B) 563 � 483 B.C.
C) 483 � 343 B.C.
D) 573 � 473 B.C.
76) How many of the given numbers are divisible by 11?
78432, 19832, 739, 896324, 90032, 754754, 232323
A) 6
B) 3
C) 2
D) 5
77) An amount of Rs. 75,000 is to be distributed among Alu, Balu and Chalu in the ration 3 : 6 : 1. What will be the difference between Balu and Alu’s shares?
A) Rs. 25000
B) Rs. 12500
C) Rs. 22500
D) Rs. 15000
78) What is the 5000th number in the list of all natural numbers with the perfect squares deleted?
A) 5071
B) 4929
C) 5070
D) 4930
79) 16.32 x 12 + 17.23 = ?
A) 294.0036
B) 212.08
C) 213.07
D)795
80) The LCM of three numbers is 1155. The HCF of any two of the three numbers is 3. What is the product of the three numbers?
A) 10395
B) 31185
C) 385
D) 3465
81) 57% of (2/5) = 19% of ?
A) 12
B) 0.12
C) 0.012
D) 1.2
82) ?5776 + ? = 16% of 1800
A) 215
B) 214
C) 314
D) 212
83) Kamal’s salary arrives once in 20 days while Rajini’s salary arrives once in 25 days.
If both receive their salaries together on a particular day, after how many days. will they again receive their salaries together?
A) 500
B) 1000
C) 50
D) 100
84) A number when successively divided by 8, 7 and 5, gives remainders 3, 6 and 2, respectively. How many such four-digit numbers exist?
A) 32
B) 64
C) 66
D) 33
85) The sum of three consecutive even numbers is 132. Which is the largest of the three numbers?
A) 42
B) 45
C) 44
D) 46
86) Which of the following regarding
Sarus crane is incorrect?
A) The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has marked it as endangered in its list of threatened species.
B) It is the tallest flying bird in the world
C) It is the official State bird of Uttar Pradesh.
D) It is omnivorous, feeding on fish and insects, as well as roots and plants.
87) If you want to see Nilgiri Thar in their natural habitat, which one
of the following is the best place to visit?
A) Erivaikulam National Park
B) Bannerghatta National Park
C) Bandipur National Park
D) Bhadra Wildlife Sanctuary
88) In which of the following state India�s First Mega Food Mark is established?
A) Gujarat
B) Maharashtra
C) Andhra Pradesh
D) New Delhi
89) The Term Paschim Leher often seen in the news. The term refers to
A) Naval Exercise between india and Thailand
B) Newly Invented Artificial Leaf
C) American Machine that can travel with speed of sound.
D) Indian Naval Command Exercise
90) Which of the following organizations releases Global slavery index?
A) United Nations
B) Amnesty International
C) The Walk Free Foundations
D) UNHCR
91) It is well grown in Hot and Dry condition. Most of its population can be found on Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests of India. It is Endemic to South India. It Will not Prefer Waterlogging. Recently it has been upgraded to Near Threatened Category from Endangered Species.
Which of the following Species is described in the above Passage?
A) Ashwagandha
B) Indian Mahogany
C) Teak
D) Red Sanders.
92) Which of the following is correct regarding National Minority Development Finance Corporation (NMDFC)?
A) It is incorporated as a company not for profit under the Companies Act 1956
B) It is a National Level Apex Body for the benefit of Minorities as defined under the National Commission for Minorities Act 1992
C) The prime mandate of NMDFC is to provide concessional finance to the Minorities for self employment/ income generation activities
D) All the above statements are true.
93) Which of the following countries are participating in Indian Africa Field Training Exercise (IAFTX)-2019?
1. South Africa
2. Egypt
3. Zambia
4. Nigeria
5. Namibia
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A) 1 only
B) 1,2 and 3 only
C) 2,3 and 5 only
D) 1,2, 3, 4 and 5
94) Which of the following animals are in the IUCN’s Vulnerable List?
1. Aldabra Tortoise
2. Golden Jackal
3. Snow Leopard.
Select the correct answer using the codes below:
A) 3 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 only
D) 2 and 3 only
95) Which of the following statements regarding Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC) is correct?
A) It is a large system of ocean currents that carry warm water from the tropics northwards into the North Atlantic.
B) It is a large system of ocean currents that carry cold water from the tropics northwards into the North Atlantic.
C) It is a large system of ocean currents that carry warm water from the North Atlantic into Tropics
D) It is a large system of ocean currents that carry Cold water from the North Atlantic into Tropics
96) Which of the following is incorrect regarding X-Calibur telescope?
A) It is a telescope that has been successfully launched recently by CSIRfrom Antarctica.
B) It will analyse X-rays arriving from distant neutron stars, black holes and other exotic celestial bodies
C) It was launched on a helium balloon intended to reach an altitude of 130,000 feet
D) The prime observation target will be Vela X-1, a neutron star in binary orbit with a supergiant star.
97) Galapagos Islands which was sometime seen in news is geographic located in
A) Pacific Ocean
B) North Atlantic Ocean
C) Indian Ocean
D) None of the Above
98) Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals?
A) It is an environmental treaty under the aegis of International Union for Conservation of Nature
B) It provides a global platform for the conservation and sustainable use of migratory animals and their habitats.
C) It is the only global convention specializing in the conservation of migratory species, their habitats and migration routes
D) India has been a Party to the CMS since 1983.
99) Which of the following is responsible for releasing Global Corruption Index?
A) World Bank
B) World Economic Forum
C) Transparency International
D) United Nations
100) Red Fort Declaration 1997 which was sometime seen in news is
Strategic Partnership between India and
A) Brazil
B) China
C) U.S.A
D) South Africa
Today exam there is no comprehension and reasoning questions
Do u know when the upsc coaching for 2019-20 batch starts?